JAMES 2:1

If you compare various English translations of this verse, you are likely to get a little confused as to which is the correct rendering. It turns out that even the scholars who make it their career to study the Greek New Testament are equally confused. I don't expect all of you to follow the intricate ins and outs of the discussion below (I know that it left me more bewildered than edified), but I hope it does serve to prove the great deal of trouble sincere Bible scholars take to derive just the intended nuances out of a biblical text, even if in the final analysis they do not always agree with one another.

I have started out with comments on the five possible translations that Scot McKnight enumerates, and then have supplemented it with some additional suggestions made by others. It would be helpful before you proceed, if you could read this verse in the context of what follows in the biblical text.

1. “our Lord Jesus (glorious) Christ”

2. “our glorious Lord, Jesus Christ”

As far as I am aware, there are no responsible Bible scholars who have proposed either of these variations: the first one in which 'glory/glorious' modifies Christ and the second which takes it to modify Lord instead. Adamson feels that the latter “imposes an intolerable strain on the order of the two nouns.”

3. “our glorious Lord Jesus Christ”

Davids, after proposing yet another understanding, ends up by endorsing this translation. But Adamson responds, “This interpretation is arbitrary: such a genitive with a proper name is at least doubtful, while such parallels as 1 Cor. 2:8; Eph. 1:17; Ps. 29:3; Acts 7:2 are hardly relevant.”.”

Tasker agrees with Adamson's objection as he states, “Others have taken the glory as a genitive of quality, and connected it with the words our Lord Jesus Christ in the sense of 'our glorious Lord Jesus Christ'; but this seems an unduly fulsome expression. Even Ropes, who advocates it, remarks, 'it is not an altogether happy expansion of the Lord of glory in I Cor. ii. 8'.”

McKnight also says, “Even though the expression...is unusual, leading some to suggest an interpolation, all the evidence of the surviving manuscripts suggest that this text is original. Faith in the Lord Jesus Christ is a thoroughly Christian expression, but the addition of 'glorious' is unusual and could derive from early hymnic or creedal lines (e.g., 1 Tim 3:16) and it could be a combination of 'our Lord Jesus Christ' with the 'Lord of glory' (1 Cor 2:8).”

4. “our Lord Jesus Christ, the glorious one”

Adamson notes that Bengel suggested “Our Lord Jesus Christ, the glory” and that NEB similarly translated the phrase as “Our Lord Jesus Christ, who reigns in glory.” However, Adamson notes that it is “entirely lacking in evidence to support it.”

And Tasker adds more problems with this reading: “The expression the Lord of glory is found in I Cor. ii. 8 and elsewhere in the New Testament, and presumably means 'the Lord who now reigns in glory'. There is, however, in the Greek text no repetition of the Lord as in A.V., R.V. And R.S.V.; and it is difficult to see why the writer, if he had intended to connect of glory with the Lord, should not have placed the words in juxtaposition. As it is, the glory is found in the genitive case immediately after 'our Lord Jesus Christ'.”

5. “the glorious one, the Lord Jesus Christ”

There are actually several other minor variations on this translation which have been proposed over the years.

Since 'glorious' is the last word in the Greek text, both McKnight and Mayor tend to favor this translation. But even this reading does not entirely determine the interpretation since, as McKnight explains, the glory might (a), as in I Corinthians 2:8 suggest God's own splendor and presence or (b) suggest the future glorification of Jesus Christ after his humiliation on earth. He quotes Sophie Laws: “James is not here concerned with the definition of christology [as in the theophanic view (a)] but with the relation between faith and behavior.”

McKnight concludes that “we are left with the option of leaving two views in balance.” If so, view (a) would stress Jesus' humble position while on earth and shame the Christians into treating the poor better while (b) would remind believers that they will eventually have to answer for their shameful behavior before the now glorified Lord.

In support of (b), Stott says the following: In the Old Testament God's glory or splendor was revealed in nature and history, that is, in the created universe and in the redeemed nation...It is not in the least surprising that, when the New Testament opens, glory should be associated with Jesus Christ... According to the Synoptic Gospels, however, although Jesus' glory was glimpsed at his transfiguration, its full manifestation would not take place until his Parousia and the kingdom which would then be consummated [see Matt. 25:31; Mark 10:37; 13:26; Lk. 9:32; and 2 Pet. 1:16].”

Tasker, after rejecting several other views, endorses this general understanding: “It may well be then that the glory should be taken in apposition to Jesus Christ. He is the glory in the sense that He fully reflected on earth, with the necessary limitations of His incarnate life, the nature of God Himself...for this interpretation, first suggested by Bengel and subsequently adopted by Mayer and Hort, the glory is almost a descriptive title for Christ; and although such a title is not found elsewhere, what is implied in it is a truth unfolded in several passages (see especially Luke. ii. 32; Jn. I. 14, xvii. 5; Heb. I.3).”

“The NIV has done well in...taking the word 'glorious' (doxes) in apposition to, and therefore descriptive of, Christ.” (Blue)

6. “the Lord Jesus Christ, our glory”

Carson: “'Lord' is not repeated in the original before 'glory' and Bengel suggested that the meaning is 'our Lord Jesus Christ (who is) the glory', and that rendering has been accepted by Hort, Mayor and others (cf. Lk 2:32; Jn 1:14; Rom 9:4; Heb. 1:3; 9:5; I Pet. 4:14). A simple emendation would yield the attractive reading: 'the Lord Jesus Christ, our glory'. Mayor quotes evidence to show that the Shekinah, the Jewish name for the divine glory living among men, was used of God and of the Messiah...(cf. Zech. 2:5; 6:13).”

Carson is not the only one who has suggested that small change in the order of the text. For example, Adamson states, “As the text stands, the Greek is hardly the kind one would expect from a writer like James, a circumstance underlined by the various and, in our opinion, unsatisfactory proposed renderings...We therefore propose transference of 'our' to the end of the sentence, making Christ 'our glory.'...This suggestion, made originally by P.B.R. Forbes is viewed favorably also by F.F. Bruce.”

But this is not the only suggested change in the received Greek text which has been proposed, as you can see below.

7. “our Lord Jesus Christ, who is, [that is,] of God”

Hendricksen: “In one of Paul's epistles (I Cor. 2:8) the expression Lord of glory occurs. This is identical to the reference to 'the God of glory' in Stephen's speech (Acts 7:2). Both titles are reminders of the glory of the Lord that settled upon and filled the tabernacle in the desert (Exod. 40:35). A possible interpretation is to take the words of glory and place them in apposition with Jesus Christ: 'Jesus Christ, who is, [that is,] of God.' This interpretation resembles John's testimony about Jesus living among the disciples: 'We have seen his glory, the glory of the one and only Son, who came from the Father, full of grace and truth' (John 1:14). The descriptive adjective glorious in this passage demonstrates contrast between the glory of our Lord Jesus Christ and the glitter of earthly riches. The brothers should not look at their fellow man and judge him merely by external circumstances.”

8. “the glory of our Lord Jesus Christ”

McKnight notes that some Coptic and Syriac manuscripts place “the glory” before “of the Lord Jesus Christ as well as some manuscripts omitting all mention of “the glory.” Adamson comments that “this has found few supporters..; and there is no good parallel for this construction or the order...” And Davids adds that “the reading is unnatural and the emphasis on glory in this context seems to make no sense.”

9. “the opinion of our Lord Jesus Christ”

Adamson notes: “Erasmus made the fascinating suggestion...that doxa [“glory”] should be taken in the sense of 'opinion,' which would connect directly to 'acts of favoritism.” But Adamson says of Erasmus' opinion, “This is thoroughly unbiblical and finds few modern advocates.”

10. “the glorious faith of our Lord Jesus Christ”

L.T. Johnson mentions that some manuscripts “place 'of glory' (tes doxes) immediately after 'faith,' which would then yield the natural translation, 'glorious faith'...The position after 'our Lord Jesus Christ,' however, is to be preferred.”

11. “faith in/of our Lord Jesus Christ”

Then there is the additional problem of deciding which of the above prepositions to attach between “faith” and “our Lord Jesus Christ.” Johnson states, “Many commentators chose the objective genitive, 'faith in our Lord Jesus Christ'.” But his own opinion is: “The subjective 'faith of Jesus Christ' is more likely.”

12. Interpolation Theories

Johnson explains that the “extraordinary separation of the phrases tou kyriou [of the Lord] and tes doxes [of glory] helped generate theories of interpolation [i.e. accidental or purposeful addition of words to the original text]...even though no MS evidence supports such theories.”

In a similar vein, Adamson says, “we reject the idea that 'glory' is an afterthought (R. A. Knox) or a gloss (Spitta, Meyer), even if absent in two miniscules (Marty). Textual evidence and alleged parallels to 'the Lord of Glory' are both palpably weak: why, too, should a Christian editor be content with such a superficial change? That 'Jesus Christ' was originally a marginal gloss, possibly with 'our' added, is equally untenable: no Jewish reader would break up the phrase; further, 'Jesus Christ' ought to have come first or last.”

The conclusion to the above multiple possibilities is that we will probably never know exactly what was in James' mind as he wrote this verse, but fortunately no particular doctrinal point hangs on the solution.

II SAMUEL 5:1-3

Before commenting on the individual verses here which deal with the rising of David to king, we must first deal with the question as to whether this is a unified text or one pieced together from two separate ancient traditions.

Alter and Kermode explain the situation concerning this “supposedly defective narrative”: “The apparent difficulty here is that the last sentence is a repetition of the first. The atomistic solution of some textual scholars runs along the following lines: two traditions, using similar formulations, have been rather clumsily spliced together by the editor; in the first tradition, it was the tribes of Israel who came to Hebron, in the second tradition, the elders; the editorial compulsion to incorporate both traditions introduces both a redundancy and a contradiction in the text. This is another instance in which inattention to the organizing literary principles of the text leads to faulty scholarship.”

As but one example of this “atomistic solution” to which Alter and Kermode allude, here is what McCarter says regarding this passage: “The original narrative is represented by only a couple of sentences. Verses 1 are Deuteronomistic expansion, looking ahead to Nathan's oracle in chap. 7 and to 7:7-8 in particular...Only v. 3 was a part of our oldest account of David's rise to power.” Note that this is stated quite simply as a matter of fact without any supporting proof.

By contrast, Alter and Kermode see these verses as a completely unified text, although, admittedly their complicated explanation of it as an example of “resumptive repetition” is a bit hard to follow. My own parsing of this passage does not really contradict theirs but may be a little easier to visually follow. These verses can be seen below to form a roughly parallel arrangement of a type which is quite common in the Bible:

    A. All the tribes of Israel came to David at Hebron and said, (1a)

        B. “Here we are your bone and flesh. Long ago when Saul was king over us,

        you were Israel's leader in battle.” (1b-2a)

            C. The Lord said to you, (2b)

                D. “You shall shepherd my people and you shall be ruler over Israel.” (2c)

    A'. All the elders of Israel came to the king at Hebron, and (3a)

        B'. King David made a covenant with them at Hebron (3b)

            C'. before the Lord (3c)

                D'. and they anointed David king over Israel (3d)

II Samuel 5:1a

McKenzie explains that “the Chronicler describes 'all Israel' coming to make David king (1 Chron 11:1). The parallel (2 Sam 5:1) refers only to the northern tribes, since he has been ruling over Judah for seven and one-half years.”

Contra what some critics claim, there is neither a contradiction nor a redundancy between the tribes coming to David in 1a and the elders in 3a. As Tsumura, among others, points out, “it seems best to understand that all the tribes in vv. 1b-2 means messengers of the tribes, and that having received David's positive response, all the elders of Israel came in person to make covenant with David and anoint him as a king over Israel.”

II Samuel 5:1b

“A frequent expression of kinship in the OT is 'bone and flesh'...When all Israel gathers before David at Hebron, they declare in one voice, 'we are your own bone and flesh' (2 Sam 5:1; 1 Chron 11:1). This expression, in which two opposite parts of the human body – hard structure and soft substance – stand for the whole [a figure of speech called a merism], evokes a rudimentary picture of the body and a recognition of what we would call a 'genetic' relationship between kin.” (Dictionary of Biblical Imagery)

Critics call this a blatant mistake on the author's part since David came from Judah while the tribes under question here were from the Northern Kingdom. Tsumura responds: Even thought there was a distinct division between Judah and the rest of Israel, they still recognize each other as kin (similarly, 'brothers' in 2 Sam. 2:26-27).”

II Samuel 5:2b

Regarding God's promise to David, D.R. Davis states that it “begins in a threat (1 Sam. 13:14), becomes visible – at least to Samuel – in the anointing among Jesse's family (1 Sam. 16:1-13), hangs as a suspicion over a tormented Saul (1 Sam. 18:8) or as a foregone conclusion over an almost resigned Saul (1 Sam. 24:20-21; 26:25), and is assumed by both David's friends (1 Sam. 23:16-17; 25:230-31) and his opponents (2 Sam. 3:9-10, 18).”

On the other hand, Tsumura points to the oracle in 1 Sam. 22:10 as the probable basis for this prediction.

II Samuel 5:2c

Porter says, “Yahweh had promised him two offices; he was to be not only their ruler, but was also to shepherd them. 'This is the first use of this verb in the OT with reference to a king in Israel; it obviously demands of him a pastoral care of his people, and not a despotic use of them.' (Manchline).”

Several NT commentators note that the chief priests and scribes inform Herod where the Messiah will be born. They tell him, “In Bethlehem of Judea; for thus it is written through the prophet: 'And you Bethlehem, land of Judah, are by no means least among the princes of Judah; For out of you there shall come a ruler who will shepherd my people Israel.'”

For example, Hendricksen says, “The final line of Matthew 2:6 bears great similarity to what is found in II Sam. 5:2...by the Sanhedrin – and Matthew is in full agreement – these words are now applied to David's great Son and Lord, namely, the Messiah...What is often passed by in silence is the fact that neither King Herod nor the Jewish Sanhedrin for a moment doubted that the reference of Mic. 5:2 and the ultimate reference of II Sam. 5:2 are to a person (not a nation), namely, the Messiah.”

II Samuel 5:3

Baldwin states that “the representatives of the tribes of Israel appear to have lost no time in assembling at Hebron to swear allegiance to David (v. 3). They explain their decision on three counts: i. The ties of kinship are strong (cf. Dt. 17:15); ii. David has already proved himself as a military leader under Saul (1 Sa. 18:30), and on his own account when Saul was after his blood; iii. Most impressive of all, he had divine approval...the prophetic oracle..., though not previously recorded in the book, seems to have been widely known (cf. 2 Sam. 3:8-10)."

GOD ROARS LIKE A LION

 The Dictionary of Biblical Imagery explains that the “Israelites based their opinion of the lion on their encounters with it as pastoralists...A significant portion of the references to lion in scripture concerns its voice...No doubt many more people had heard a lion than had seen one, and this enhanced the mythology surroundings lions.” I would like to concentrate on five of these references (quoting from the RSV) which compare the voice of God with the roaring of a lion.

Jeremiah 25:30 – “The LORD will roar from on high and from his holy habitation utter his voice; he will roar mightily against his fold and shout, like those who tread grapes, against all the inhabitants of the earth.”

This is actually a rather confusing prophecy. If one concentrates on the phrase “his fold,” then that would seem to point to Israel and Judah as the objects of God's wrath. But “all the inhabitants of the earth” could refer to either the foreign nations only or to all the nations including Israel and Judah. Then there is the related question as to whether these two phrases are parallel to one another or refer to different nations. Thus, the following comments from the scholarly literature demonstrate that there are mixed explanations as to what is being said here.

D.R. Jones begins by stating that “the pattern of this sentence is exactly that of Am. 1.2, with which there must be some unexplained connection, cf. also Jl 3.16.” But there is also a drastic difference also, as you can see by looking at those latter two verses below. Jones' explanation is as follows: “The difference is that in Am. the LORD roars 'from Zion' and utters his voice 'from Jerusalem'. Jeremiah could not express the divine intervention thus, for the LORD is to destroy Zion (his fold) and declare his judgment over Jerusalem, as over all the nations of the earth. The change is therefore necessary and deliberate...Here it may be that the picture is of the thunder, itself a figure of the divine judge pronouncing his terrible judgment from one end of the world to the other in the vicissitudes of history.”

Bright: “The second part of the chapter (vss. 15-38) is concerned with Yahweh's judgment on the nations of the world...The very fact that he was commissioned as 'a prophet to the nations' (i 5) would lead one to expect that some of his sayings – as had been the case with most of the prophets since Amos – would concern peoples other than Israel.”

“It is at once evident that vv. 15-39 are closely related to the oracles against the foreign nations in chs. 46-51).” (Thompson)

And Lamb adds, “Perhaps more than any another OT genre, prophetic literature is concerned with nations other than Israel and Judah, but ultimately all peoples and nations...Although most of these oracles involve judgment on those nations and cities, in Isaiah, Yahweh calls Egypt, 'my people' and Assyria 'the work of my hands' (Is 19:25).”

But Schnittjer states, “The shift from Zion [in Amos 1:2] to on high signals, for Jeremiah's readership, the fall of Jerusalem.”

Hosea 11:10 – “They shall go after the LORD, he will roar like a lion; yes, he will roar, and his sons shall come trembling from the west.”

“One day, Israel will return to Yahweh and they will be able to return upon their conversion...When the great lion Yahweh will roar, not one will fail to hear, and the restoration of Israel will be at hand (cf. Joel 3:16). Here that roaring is emphasized by the repetition of the verb...Hosea's audience presumably understood this cliche as a signal of the new age for Israel (cf. 2:16-23; 3:5). But the restoration promised here will apply to reconverted Israelites only (cf. Deut 4:29). Thus first the condition is stated: 'After Yahweh they shall go.' The new Israel will be characterized by righteous behavior and true faith (cf. Zeph 3:12-13).” (Stuart)

Joel 3:16 – “And the LORD roars from Zion and utters his voice from Jerusalem, and the heavens and the earth shake. But the LORD is a refuge to his people, a stronghold to the people of Israel.”

Barker points out that Joel 3:14 “emphasizes the way in which this prophetic book enacts a complete reversal of the sense of the Day of the Lord. This is evident in a comparison of the use of the Day of the Lord in Joel 2:1-2, 10-11 and Joel 3:14-16. In the former passage the call goes up to sound an alarm in Zion because the day of Yahweh is near. Joel 2:10-11 then reveals that this Day of the Lord entails Yahweh leading an unstoppable army against Zion. Meanwhile, Joel 3:14 also announces that the Day of the Lord is near, using almost the same vocabulary. In Joel 3:14-16, however, Zion is the location of Yahweh's divine activity. Following the announcement in Joel 3:14 that the Day of the Lord is near. Joel 3:16 declares that Yahweh roars from Zion, essentially rendering it impregnable by his very presence.”

Martens says, “A major feature of the Day of the Lord is Yahweh's judging of the peoples. The upshot is safety and protection for some (Joel 3:16b-17) and dire disaster for others (Joel 3:19).”

And Crenshaw adds, “The reversal of normal order for verb and subject places the emphasis on the subject, YHWH, who charges forth from Zion, the sacred city, to lead an army against the assembled warriors from surrounding lands.”

Thus, in these three scholars we see the gamut of concepts from God taking up a purely defensive stand to an image of both judgment and attack, to Him leading an army against the enemy. And Stuart adds, “In the Old Testament, at least, and perhaps in the New Testament also, all detailed statements regarding God's voice describe it as thunderous to the hearer...He will not, however, roar against Israel anymore.”

Before moving on to Amos 1:2, here are some varying comments regarding the obvious correspondences between Joel 3:16 and this verse.

Briggs notes that one recent topic of interest in prophetic studies has been the way in which the 12 minor prophets can be viewed as a unified book. “One suggestion has been the phenomenon of 'catchword linkages,'whereby a noteworthy word or phrase at the end of one prophet is taken up at the beginning of the next (such as 'Yahweh roars from Zion' [Joel 3:16, Amos 1:2]), perhaps to draw attention to some broader thematic link.”

On the other hand, Garrett feels that “Perhaps the framers of the canon had no idea when Joel was written, and thus they used this catchphrase as the best basis for positioning the book in the canon.” Adding to this supposition is Sweeney's confirmation that “Joel is notoriously difficult to date.”

Finally, Crenshaw says, “It is impossible to determine which prophet influenced the other. Both Joel and Amos probably took the sentence from a floating tradition, each one investing it with his own application to the historical situation.” That brings us up to a consideration of the Amos passage.

Amos 1:2 – “The LORD roars from Zion, and utters his voice from Jerusalem; the pastures of the shepherds mourn, and the top of Carmel withers.”

G.V. Smith states, “The roar of God is not just a reference to his 'secret words to the prophets', it is a warning of judgment, a symbol of the beginning of an attack...For a herdsman like Amos, two of the best illustrations of devastation would be the withering of the shepherd's pasture and the lush Carmel ridge...The introduction not only summarized the prophet's prediction that God will judge the nation, it also confirms the validity of the words of judgment spoken by Amos while in Israel.”

Then there is the question of the verb tense. “A few scholars take this initial declaration as the introduction to the Oracles Against the Nations [only]...But this claims too little. It is better, as may commentators agree, to consider 1:2 as the thematic key to the entire book...the actions are beginning even as Yahweh speaks. The voice of God and the roar are the announcement and commencement of the following judgments...His roar resounds like thunder, and he comes not to deliver but to judge his people...” (Carroll R)

But who are his people? Mobley speaks a little more accurately in pointing out what is obvious from the rest of Amos, namely, that it is all of the nations, including Israel and Judah, who are under God's judgment.

And what about the verb tense? Andersen and Freedman devote a number of pages to a detailed study of this one verse. However, I will confine myself to this one comment from them: “Amos 9:13-15, if it is at all like Joel 4:15-18, makes Amos 1:2 a prediction of the general devastation that will be followed by universal reconstruction. And the lion's roar is the boast of the predator after the kill. If, however, Amos 1:2 is connected with Amos 3:8, which is clearly in the past tense ('the Lord has spoken'), the lion's roar is the announcement of coming judgment (1:3-3:8). We suggest that the ambiguity in the verb forms of v 2 (preterit or future) leaves it open for a double connection shown by the literary structure.”

Revelation 10:3 – “And [he] called out with a loud voice, like a lion roaring: when he called out, the seven thunders sounded.”

This reference is not as clearly talking about God as the first four above since it is said to refer to a mighty angel, but here is how Beale explains the situation: “The lion metaphor also connotes the sovereign position the angel has over creation by virtue of possession of the scroll, since the lion image has a similar connotation with respect to the scroll in 5:5. A further hint that the angel is Christ or at least his unique representative is that in 4 Ezra 11:37; 12:31 the messiah's judgment of the wicked is described with the wording 'as it were a lion...roaring.' It is also probable that the reference to the roar of a lion in Rev. 10:3 alludes to Amos 3:8, since there is a clear allusion to Amos 3:7 in Rev. 10:7...This underscores further not only the christological nature but also the divine aspect of the angelic speaker in v 3...”

As to the context and meaning of this verse, Mounce says that “the angel's voice had a deep resonance which would demand the attention of those who heard. The voice of the angel calls forth a response from the seven thunders. They too utter their voices. According to Beckworth they are 'premonitions of God's anger about to burst forth in judgment. Elsewhere in Revelation thunder is associated with divine retribution. In 8:5 it follows the casting of fire upon the earth. In 11:19 it is associated with the trumpet-plague, and in 16:18 with the final bowl of God's wrath. Here as well it forebodes the coming peril of divine retribution.”

Conclusion

As you can see, these seemingly similar prophecies are each so ambiguous that they can be interpreted in a number of ways. And that is not at all unusual when it comes to almost all Old Testament prophecies. That is why I tend to be suspicious any time a self-proclaimed prophecy expert claims to have the unique key to what is going to happen in the future and when it when it will occur.

MATTHEW 22:11-14

There are many questions that need answering concerning these words found in Jesus' parable of Matthew 22:1-14. As Snodgrass states in his massive treatise on all the New Testament parables, it “is enough to make any interpreter go weak in the knees; I consider it among the most difficult parables of all.”

Are Matthew and Luke telling the same parable?

The first controversy concerns the relationship of Matthew's account with the somewhat similar parable recounted in Luke 14:15-24. Quoting Snodgrass again: “Whether the accounts of this parable – Matthew on one hand [Matt. 22:1-14] and Luke [14:15-24] on the other – are two versions of the same parable or two separate parables is debatable, and, therefore, whether the two should even be treated together is questionable...I do not think we have two versions of the same parable.”

France agrees with this assessment and begins by pointing out the plot differences between the two stories: “Luke has no king or wedding, focuses at some length on the reasons for nonattendance to which Matthew alludes only briefly in v. 5, and has two waves of replacement guests brought in (perhaps to represent Jews and Gentiles). He has nothing about the ill-treatment of the (single) messenger, and his host takes no punitive action other than excluding the original invitees from the feast. And Luke's parable stops short when the hall is full; there is no second scene with the expulsion of one of the new invitees.” He concludes: “From the point of view of an exegetical commentary it is more responsible to read Matthew's story on its own terms, and in its own literary context, than to look for its meaning primarily in terms of how it differs from Luke's.”

In Kistemaker's book on the parables, he treats these as totally separate parables. And Ellison states, “The force of this...parable is often lost by a wrong comparison with Lk's parable of a private banquet.”

Bright and Mann agree with this consensus: “The Lukan reference...is not a true parallel...both the language and the details are quite different.”

Is Matthew 22:11-14 a separate parable from Matthew 22:1-10?

Bright and Mann state without any proof or elaboration: “This obviously begins a separate parable.” “This may originally have been a separate parable dealing with preparedness, like the parables of judgment in chs. 24-25. Otherwise, given the way in which the substitute guests had been gathered (vv. 9-10), this guest's lack of a wedding robe would be surprising.” (Overman)

Blomberg: “This episode is often seen as incongruous and as a justification for assuming that vv. 11-14 originally came from a separate parable that Matthew has conflated with v. 1-10.” But he disagrees with this view.

Where were the attendees supposed to get wedding clothing at the last minute?

“It is fruitless to discuss whether there was a custom demanding that the giver of a wedding feast had an obligation to provide special clothing. No such custom is known to us and...it is probable that only clean clothes were expected.”

Hendricksen says, “There is only one solution, as far as I can see, that will help us out of this difficulty...It is that, by command of the king and from his bountiful supplies, at the very entrance of the wedding hall a wedding robe had been offered to each guest.” For evidence of a robe being provided for those brought into the presence of a king, he cites II Kings 10:22; Isaiah 61:10; and Revelation 19:7-8.

“Judging by similar rabbinic parables, the man had simply continued about his own business until it was too late to go home and change.” (Ellison)

Blomberg points out “nothing in the passage says that this man has not been given time to find proper dress or that he was unable to locate any. Moreover it is quite possible that the imagery here reflects the custom of a king providing festive dress for those he invited to the banquet. Despite claims that no first-century evidence attests this otherwise common custom of antiquity, see...the plentiful references to other parallels in Gundry, Matthew, 439.”

And then there is David Hill, who feels that the “question of how the guests could obtain wedding garments since they were just called in from the street, is quite irrelevant to Matthew.”

What is the underlying symbolic meaning of the wedding garment?

“Those who belong to this inaugurated [heavenly] banquet are those who have faith (Mt:10-12), who wear the appropriate garments (Mt 22:11-14) and who are sufficiently 'ready' (Mt. 25:11-12)...” (Perrin) But this begs the question as to exactly what the garment stand for.

“The man in question had attempted to enter the Kingdom without prior repentance.” (Abright and Mann)

Kistemaker reconstructs the situation as follows: “All except this one person had accepted the robe [provided by the host]. This one man, however, had looked at his own robe, had perhaps lightly brushed it off with his hand, and had then told the attendant, 'My own robe is good enough. I don't need the one you're offering me.'” If that is the scenario, then the man's clothing represents his own works, which he feels are good enough to get him into heaven without having to accept any grace from God.

However, if the guests are only supposed to go home and change into clean clothes, then the man's fault is that he shows up in the dirty clothes he was wearing when invited. “The symbolism is of someone who presumes on the free offer of salvation by assuming that therefore there are no obligations attached, someone whose life belies their profesion: faith without works.” Note that Kistemaker and France draw almost opposite lessons from this same parable.

Hill: “'The wedding garment' probably symbolizes righteousness (dikaiosune), that faithfulness and obedience which can be expected of those who are members of the Kingdom, or Church.”

And France responds in more detail: “As usual, the more improbable the details of the story, the more likely they are to indicate the intended application...the symbolism again invades the story, as the punishment far exceeds the scale of the man's offense. So to be a member of the 'new' nation is no more a guarantee of salvation than to be born into the old Israel; it still depends on producing the 'fruit,' here symbolized by the wedding clothes.”

 

THE "GREAT OMISSION" IN LUKE'S GOSPEL

This phrase refers to the fact that although the Gospel of Luke generally follows the material in Mark closely, Luke omits most of what is related in Mark 6:45-8:26. The proposed reasons for this omission have been many. Below is a sampling:

A. To place Peter's great confession next to the narrative of Christ's feeding of the multitudes.

“Matthew and Mark locate Peter's confession in the area of Caeserea Phillipi. Luke, who at this point skips over a considerable portion of Mark (6:45-8:26), omits the geographical setting. Probably it is because he wishes to connect the confession to the feeding miracle (cf. Jn 6:14, 68f.).” (Ellis)

Craddock: “Luke, like John (John 6:1-69), joins the feeding and Peter's confession...Luke seems uninterested in geography here. His concern is to locate this event in the prayer life of Jesus. It would be difficult to overestimate the central role of prayer in the ministry of Jesus according to Luke.”

“Luke wished to move straight from the feeding miracle (and the preceding incidents) to the christological confession which was aroused by it.” (Marshall)

B. Due to space limitations, Luke needed to mention only those items which best connected with his overall themes.

Geldenhuys states: “We notice throughout that he by no means professes to give a full biography of the Lord. Out of many items of information he reproduces only those which, under the guidance of the Spirit of God, he regards as the most important in composing his Gospel. We should remember that Luke could not make his writing unlimited in length – among other things he had to consider the question of not exceeding the limits of a normal papyrus roll. As it is, his Gospel is the longest book in the New Testament. So he used his space economically and recorded only the parts which were most necessary for his purpose. If we check the contents of Mark vi. 45-viii. 26, we see that no events are there described which would be of special value for the progress of the Gospel-narrative from the point of view of Luke's method and purpose.”

“The omitted section...does not materially add to the presentation of Jesus as the Messiah...Luke had to make omissions from Mk. in order to accommodate his extra material within a convenient length of book.” (Marshall)

“Luke sensed a need to curtail because of his own inserts (so Schurmann...). This is a possible reason, but not very convincing, since he still retains so much Marcan material.” (Fitzmyer)

C. Luke was relying on the same tradition used by John.

Marshall says, “It is possible that Luke knew of a tradition which joined together the feeding miracle and Peter's confession, as in Jn. 6;...note, however, that Jn. 6 retains the story of Jesus walking on the water.”

D. Our present text of Luke is defective or Luke was copying from a defective text of Mark.

Marshall mentions both of these related theories which have been proposed by others, but firmly rejects both possibilities with the words: “This omission is doubtless deliberate on Luke's part.”

Fitzmyer explains and rejects this theory also: “Luke [accidentally] omits a block of episodes that begin and end at Bethsaida, outside of Galilee (Mark 6:45; 8:22); it is a sort of omission by homoeoteleuton [an error in copying caused from the eye jumping from one line to another one which has the same or simlar wording] (W.E. Bundy). This is, however, a rather tenuous reason because Luke has [purposely] substituted Bethsaida for the Marcan phrase, 'deserted place' of 6:32; and then suppresses the mention of Caesarea Philippi as the location of Peter's confession.”

E. The omitted material was repetitious, and therefore unnecessary.

Fitzmyer notes that “if...there are two series of similar episodes in Mark 6:30-7:37 and 8:1-26, both betinning with a multiplication of loaves and fish, then Luke's tendency to avoid doublets may be a factor in the omission of the Marcan material. That does not wholly explain the matter, because he has no parallel at all to some of the 'duplicated' material.”

Childs holds to this somewhat dubious explanation when he says, “Presumably the Lucan evangelist saw these [two feedings in Mark] as doublets and decided to report only one.”

F. Luke wanted to keep Jesus' actions within Israel

Marshall also suggests, “Possibly also Luke wished to maintain the unity of the scene in Galilee and to avoid Mark's description of Jesus' work in gentile territory.”

And Fitzmyer mentions the same possibility: “Luke is at pains to limit Jesus' ministry to Galilee in this part of the Gospel; hence he omits the Marcan material in which Jesus goes to the areas of Tyre and Sidon in Phoenicia. This is important to his geographical perspective. The omission is therefore to be understood in terms of Luke's composition.”

G. It was necessary to omit Mark's material so that literary symmetry could be maintained.

Fitzmyer states, “The reasons for the omission of the Marcan material are not nearly as important as the resultant shape of this part of the Lucan Gospel.” Although I agree somewhat with Fitzmyer, as you will see below it turns out that his definition of “shape” concerns a grouping of thematically similar material together whereas I believe that the key lies more in the symmetrical literary shape which arises from this omission.

I have previously analyzed the literary structures of both Mark's and Luke's Gospel narratives. In the case of Mark's earlier composition, the material which Luke omits (Section 1 of Part One, Figure 1 below), is placed in parallel with another section dealing with the Twelve Apostles.

                                   Figure 1: The Literary Structure of the Gospel of Mark

Prelude – 1:1-13

Part One – The Sea of Galilee (1:14-8:21)

1. The Twelve are Called (1:14-3:19a)

    2. The Power, the Kingdom and the Glory (3:19b-6:6) 

1'. The Twelve are Sent Out and Warned (6:7-8:21)

Part Two – Jerusalem (8:22-16:8)

1. Jesus' Death and Resurrection Foretold (8:22-11:11)

    2. The Last Days (11:12-14:52)

1'. Jesus' Death and Resurrection (14:53-16:8)

But that section serves no such literary function within Luke's Gospel. And as you can see in Figure 2, the inclusion of that major material would have had a totally disruptive effect on the carefully composed chiastic arrangement below if it had been inserted between sections B and C.

                                      Figure 2: The Literary Structure of Luke 9

A. The Twelve are given power (9:1-11)

B. Miracle: Feeding of the multitudes (9:12-17)

C. Peter’s confession (9:18-27)

                                    C'. The Transfiguration (9:28-36)

B'. Miracle: Healing the epileptic (9:37-45)

A'. The Twelve argue over their importance (9:46-50)

The bottom line is that there is probably more than one good reason for Luke to have deleted the material which Mark includes in his narrative.

II JOHN 10 -- HOW HOSPITABLE SHOULD CHRISTIANS BE TOWARD OUTSIDERS?

Peter Davids brings up the apparent contradiction between two New Testament teachings regarding the welcoming of strangers. Whereas the general tenor of the NT teaches the principle of Christian hospitality toward others (cf. Hebrews 13:2), it seems to actually be prohibited in II John 10. To address this issue, there are several points that need to be clarified.

The first, and most important, considerations is to look at the context of this command by John. It is addressed to “the elect lady and her children.” That is almost universally understood by commentators to refer to the hostess of a home church and those who meet in her home. In other words, it has nothing to say regarding whom you wish to entertain privately at your own house.

Secondly, verse 10 is preceded in verses 7-9 by a description of those who should be excluded from your home church gatherings. These include (1) those who teach that Jesus the man and Christ, the second person of the Trinity, are not the same person as well as (2) those who do not hold to the teachings of Christ in general. Note that these criteria are a bit loose and subject to much interpretation depending upon the exact circumstances.

Lastly, the reason for such exclusion is given in verse 11: If you welcome such people into your group, you are aiding and abetting Satan. Once we understand this underlying reason for the teaching, it does give us more guidelines by which to judge individual situations. And we get some additional help from passages such as Romans 14:1 in which Paul advises the church in Rome: “As for the man who is weak in faith, welcome him, but not for disputes over opinions.” To understand this one, we must keep in mind that just because a person is “weak” in the faith, that does not at all correlate with how strongly he may express his own opinions on any spiritual topic. As a biblical example, Apollos was a powerful Christian speaker who, however, needed to be taken aside by two itinerant tent makers to correct him on his incomplete theology.

Let me share a few examples from my own life which may illustrate how these various teachings were or were not well followed:

At the first church I attended after leaving for graduate school, we had a small evening college fellowship. Once we decided to have a short series on the subject of science and the Bible, and invited a select, and quite diverse, group of outside speakers. One was a very belligerent fundamentalist pastor in town who had a weekly radio show. He came in with an obvious chip on his shoulder and assumed without any evidence that we were a group of flaming liberals or atheists masquerading as Christians. We listened to him rant and rave for an hour without comment from us and thanked him for coming as he walked out in a huff. The young woman in our church who had suggested him as a visiting speaker later reported a little bemusedly that we were the subject of his following weekly tirade even though we hadn't said a single word to offend him.

Another speaker for this same series was a professor who taught an introductory class in the Bible at the University of Oregon. We began as usual with the singing of a few hymns and an opening prayer. The prof began his talk by saying, “I can tell that you people are not what I would call very theologically sophisticated, and so I will try to talk down to a level you might be able to comprehend.” Again, I was very proud of our group because they did not take any obvious offense in what he said, but listened politely without comment.

It might be said that we had totally ignored John's advice in inviting these two speakers, but fortunately all of us in the group were rather experienced and dedicated Christians, and thus there was not the slightest chance of us being misled in either direction with what they said. Instead, it only served to strengthen our faith even more after seeing such rude examples from both extremes of the theological spectrum.

While at the U of O, I roomed with four Catholics. At one of the houses we rented, a very polite Jehovah Witness came to the door, and one of my roommates thought it might be interesting to invite him back in the evening. Since none of them possessed a Bible, I loaned them a couple of mine to share between them. The man returned, accompanied by his small son (By the way, this was a wise move on his part and probably one of the things they are taught since they know that no one is likely to get highly argumentative with a person while his impressionable son is looking on).

He started in on one of the main points of contention Christians have with the Witnesses, the deity of Christ. He would ask us to turn to a passage, at which point I had to help my roommates find where the New Testament was and how to find that particular book and chapter in it. He would then read the verse, eliminating all surrounding context, and in each case it was fortunate that I could easily point to a verse nearby which clarified the passage and totally invalidated his point. He went through a number of passages in that manner, and we thanked him for his time as he left. I am not sure that I managed to convince him of any of the points I had made, but it did have a salutary effect on my roommates.

At least with a Jehovah Witness, there is a basis of commonality in a belief in the Bible. I can't say the same for the Mormons. I am afraid that the few times I went with Gwen to the local Mormon church library for her genealogy research, I got the creeps just looking at some of the pictures they had hanging on their walls. But I would have brief encounters at my front door with the young pairs of men who liked to canvass our neighborhood. Just the fact that they were no more than 20 years old and called themselves “elders” was enough to turn me off. I did do them the courtesy of reading the Book of Mormon cover to cover and making notes in the margin on all the mistakes and ridiculous events in it, as well as the large sections cobbled together from miscellaneous Bible passages, but presented as if they were spoken by pre-Colonial Jewish settlers in America.

At one point, the Mormons gave me one of their monthly publications and told me that there was an article in it proving that the Book of Mormon had all the characteristics noted in the Bible. I actually purchased a book that was the basis of that claim. It was by a Brigham Young professor of law who claimed he had detected in the Book of Mormon the same literary symmetry found throughout the Old and New Testament. Since that just happened to be the subject of a 20+ year study I had been conducting myself, I was easily able to debunk all those claims and show that the only traces of real symmetry were found in those long passages that had been lifted verbatim from the Bible.

Getting back to the specific subject of entertaining those of dubious theological pretensions in your home church, Gwen and I belonged to two such home groups for a number of years while in Georgetown. At one of these, we were between subjects to study when one of our members said that there was a Bible teacher in town who had given a 4-6 week study on the Bible to another home group and they thoroughly enjoyed it. We invited him to present his series to us, and I for one soon regretted that decision. I would have to agree that it was indeed interesting to listen to, but when I asked the speaker at a break to provide me with the original sources of some of the enlightening “facts” he had been presenting [including the exact number of Christians Saul killed before his conversion and the discovery of Noah's ark], the best he could come up with were an article from a defunct Australian newspaper and a publication put out by a group of Christian businessmen in Singapore – hardly definitive sources.

At another point I privately warned him that equating the creation of light in Genesis 1 with the fact that Jesus is called “light” in the New Testament is the same as proclaiming that Jesus is a created being, a blatant heresy by any standard. He admitted that “perhaps” it could be taken that way and said he would eliminate that from his future presentations. As to the array of quite dubious “facts” he had been regaling us with, I pointed out to him that they were all speculative at best and out-and-out lies at worst. He admitted that I was probably right but responded, “I put them in because they are new and exciting for my audience and grab their attention before presenting the important theological points that I make in my last lessons. I interpreted that to mean he was willing to peddle untruths in the service of truth.

The end of the story is that we were very polite during his presentations, no one (including myself) confronted him openly, and in the weeks after he had left I was able to sort out the wheat from the chaff in a subsequent talks to our group to make sure that no one was misled by what he had said. This is not exactly the same situation that the apostle John was taking about since our invited speaker was not an actual heretic by any means, and again our group consisted of those who had been Christians for years and were unlikely to be led astray too badly by any false teachings. And at the same time, I think it is sometimes very helpful in such situations to be exposed to aberrant ideas to help develop discernment in believers.

Finally, the same general principle taught by John in II John 10 can be applied to Sunday school groups since putting an untested teacher in charge of one is a risky business. So I understood, and actually appreciated, it whenever I joined a new church and volunteered to teach a class, when the leadership took the pains to first carefully monitor what I was saying to make sure that I was not misleading anyone. This was done at one church by first having me team-teach with one of their more experienced teachers. And at a subsequent congregation, the pastor himself sat in on all the special evening classes I taught – at first, I am sure, to keep me on the straight and narrow and later because, as he admitted later, he found he was learning something new himself.

Twice after that point, that pastor asked me to be the one to talk to men in the church who had proposed starting new Sunday school classes and possibly to team-teach with them. One of these men was obviously only interested in utilizing a class as the basis of a multi-generational sociological study he wanted to do. In the other case, the would-be teacher turned out to be a rather obnoxious and totally heretical son of one of the influential deacons in the church. I gained both of those insights in the first and only meeting I had with him at a coffee shop where he was much more interested in what was on his laptop computer than taking the time to talk to me. I think our pastor was also very dubious about letting his teach, but wanted some added ammunition before confronting the father with that news. Fortunately, it turned out the man's father was even more adamant that his son not be allowed to teach and even brought pressure to bear to get him removed from the church rolls.

At that same church, I learned that before I had begun attending, a man started teaching a Sunday school class downstairs on the Jewish customs in the Bible. With time, he began teaching them rudimentary Hebrew and Jewish chants, which morphed into a two-hour session in which they had their own worship service in place of the one held upstairs. Actually, it was an exact replay of what Paul encountered in churches such as at Galatia when “Judaizers” infiltrated the church and began demanding that every Gentile there be circumcised and that all the Jewish ceremonies be observed. After letting the situation get out of control in our church, at last the leadership disbanded the splinter group which had in effect set up their own independent church under our roof.

The same sort of thing happened at that church when I was serving on the Personnel Committee during a time when we were between senior pastors. One of the members of the church was a young man whose full-time job was as a motivational speaker for businesses. He attracted many of the young married men in the congregation to his class where he taught them that they were not only the future of the church, but they should take their rightful spot right now as leaders. And the hiatus between church leadership at the time provided the ideal opportunity for them to do so. As a result, they practically led a revolt against the deacons and church committees, championing our youth pastor at the time as the obvious successor to power. This led to some really ugly confrontations, all of which would probably not have happened if some better screening and monitoring of the Sunday school teacher had been done from the very beginning.

The upshot of all of it was that we had to discipline the youth pastor, warn the remaining associate pastors, and fire one of the church secretaries. The disgruntled youth pastor, along with all of those men in the class and wives, left to start their own church. That fledgling congregation lasted only about six months since the rather self-centered men in the group didn't want to put in the necessary money, time or effort to make a go of it. Instead, I learned that a number of them decided that what they really wanted to do was buy expensive motorcycles instead and ride them around during the weekends rather than attending church.

 

DOES THE BIBLE TALK OF THE "EVIL EYE"?

What does the Bible have to teach about the common belief in the power of the so-called evil eye? We might expect it to say something due to the pervasive feeling about magic in the Mediterranean area during that time period. For example, J.S. Wright says, “Magic abounds in Gk. mythology. Among those accredited with supernatural powers were the Telchines, smiths who lived on the island of Rhodes who had the evil eye and who bear a resemblance to the dwarfs and gnomes of north European mythology...The most renowned enchantress of antiquity was Medea who also had the evil eye...”

One of the anonymous scholars writing in The Dictionary of Biblical Imagery states, “Nowhere is [the] view of the magical power inherent in the observer's eye more evident than in the almost universal belief in the power of the evil eye. Some people, it was thought, could bring about calamity by casting a spell with 'an evil eye.' The expression of jealous sentiments or even compliments were viewed as harboring vengeful spirits that would subsequently destroy what had been admired. In accordance with this outlook, the phrase 'evil eye' in Scripture is usually rendered conceptually as 'jealousy.' The literal phrase 'Is thine eye evil because I am good?' (Mt 20:15 AV) becomes 'Do you begrudge my generosity?' (RSV).” In that manner, “Some magical phrases almost escape detection.”

Deuteronomy 15:9-10

Baker: “The [later] rabbis did not add significantly to the wide range of usage of the nom. forms of this root [ra'a = evil] already evident in the OT; in fact, they seemed to use it in all of its riches. Instead of the heart being grudging (Deut 15:10), a later idiom spoke of the illiberal eye. There also developed the idea of the evil eye, defined as bewitchment.”

“A potential creditor might be unwilling to make a loan to a poor man because of the proximity of the year of release [when all debts were forgiven]...The only way in which to avoid such a situation was to inculcate a generous attitude toward the man...” (Craigie)

Deuteronomy 28:54, 56

The King James Version renders these verses as, “His eye shall be evil toward his brother” and “her eye shall be evil toward the husband...” The context of these words involves a prophecy of a coming time of siege against the people of Israel in which food shall be so scarce that people will horde what little they have and not even share it with their closest relatives.

Isaiah 29:20

“Eyes picture the presence or absence of evil in a person...Isaiah refers to evil people as those with 'an eye for evil' (Isa 29:20).” (DBI) Obviously, this does not refer to some sort of magical curse, but just the evil tendencies of some people.

Proverbs 23:6

NRSV translates the meaning of this verse as, “Do not eat the bread of the stingy; do not desire their delicacies.”

Waltke: “A begrudging host (lit. 'evil eye' > 'stingy') is the opposite of the generous person (lit. 'good eye'; see 22:9; cf. Deut. 15:9; Sir. 14:10).”

Proverbs 28:22

“He that hasteth to be rich hath an evil eye and considereth not that poverty shall come upon him.” (KJV)

“The miser is in a hurry to get rich and does not know that loss is sure to come.” (NRSV)

This is another example of the difference between reading a literal rendering which is highly misleading and one in which the underlying idiom is translated so that its underlying meaning can be properly understood.

Matthew 5:29

Banwell states, “Mt. v. 29 preserves the Hebraic notion of the almost self-contained function of the organ [e.g. 'eyes'].” That verse reads, “And if your right eye causes you to stumble, pluck it out.” He notes that the phrase “an evil eye” occurs in Proverbs 27:6 and Matthew 6:23.

Matthew 6:23 // Luke 11:34

“In view of the recognized meaning of the 'bad eye' to denote selfish greed or meanness, it seems likely that this saying is meant to indicate that one indication of a person's spiritual health is their generosity or lack of it in the use of their material possessions.” (France)

Matthew 20:15

This verse occurs at the end of the Parable of the Vineyard Laborers. Again, compare the literal translation of the Greek words (“Or is the eye of you evil because I am good?”) with a modern rendering such as the Jerusalem Bible (“Why be envious because I am generous?”)

Acts 13:9

“Only in Acts 13:9 is the look directly incorporated in a context of cursing. It is not stated or implied, however, that anything like an evil eye is employed in the curse.” (Liefeld) The context of this verse involves Paul looking “intently” at the magician Elymas before bringing a curse of blindness upon him.

Galatians 3:1

Despite the above event, “The notion of the 'evil eye' that is common throughout most religious traditions is notably absent from the Bible (though Gal 3:1 may be a veiled reference).” [That verse reads “You foolish Galatians! Who has bewitched you?”] Belief in the 'evil eye' was criticized by preachers in the early church.” (DBI)

I searched commentators on Galatians to see if anyone else related this verse to the “evil eye,” with the following results:

Stott feels that the primary meaning has to do with satanic activity. However, he adds, “It is possible that Paul is is making a further allusion to their having been bewitched. He seems to be asking how some sorcerer could have put them under the spell of the evil eye, when before their very eyes Christ has been portrayed as crucified.”

Guthrie says that “while we cannot suppose that the apostle had any acquaintance with contemporary magic, the word [i.e. bewitched] is vividly appropriate...He can only suggest somewhat ironically that they must be under some adverse magic.”

“One would think they had been charmed or bewitched. Naturally the apostle does not mean this in the literal sense.” (Ribberous)

“Baskaino (here only in the NT) means 'fascinate' (from the cognate Lat. fascino) or 'bewitch' (originally by means of the evil eye). The other meaning, 'envy' (cf. Deut. 28:56), is not relevant here. Translate: 'who has hypnotized you.' Their new behavior was so strange, so completely at odds with the liberating message which they had previously accepted, that it appeared as if someone had put a spell on them.” (Bruce)

Martyn states: “Paul believes that in order fully to identify the Teachers' seductive wiles he must reach into the vocabulary of magic, for these people are not only frightening the Galatians, they are also leading them astray by casting a spell over them. This is the only place in his letters at which Paul uses the verb baskaino, 'to bewitch,' 'to put the evil eye upon,' ...indicating that they are damaging the minds of the Galatians.”

Thus, we see that there is really not one of the above references which unambiguously states that there is such a magical thing as the “evil eye.”

Early Christian History

Bringing this quick review up to the post-biblical period, there is some interesting information found in a recent article in Biblical Archaeology Today by Megan Nutzman.“The church historian Eusebius wrote around 315 CE [i.e. AD] that Christians would 'not allow their sick even to do what is exceedingly common with non-Christians, to make use of charms written on leaves or amulets. Later in the fourth century John Chrysostom regularly admonished his congregation in Antioch against the use of amulets.” Such magical devices were hung around the neck and inscribed in various ways or contained appropriate OT passages to guard against harmful forces such as the evil eye. It is felt that these may have been worn in analogy to the phylacteries worn by practicing Jews, but in any case they were certainly frowned upon by early church leaders as smacking of superstitious beliefs.

 

SPENDOMAI ("POUR OUT") IN THE NEW TESTAMENT

This rare Greek word only appears twice in the Bible, Philippians 2:17 and II Timothy 4:6, both times in almost identical settings.

Before going any further, it is best to consider the word definition, as explained by some linguistic experts:

France points out that “the technical term for offering libations (of wine) is spendo (translating Heb. nasak)...Paul takes up the pouring of libations as a metaphor for his approaching martyrdom, in his use of spendo in Phil. 2:17 and 2 Tim. 4:6. The libation is not like the blood sacrifices, an atoning offering, but an expression of dedication to God.”

Moving backwards to the original Hebrew parallel term in the OT, Averbeck discusses the word nasak as follows: “Within the sanctuary system libations constituted a significant part of the ritual procedures even on a regular daily basis (Exod 29:40-41; Num 28:5-8), and it was specifically legislated that libations along with grain offerings should normally accompany any burnt or peace offering (Num 15:1-15; cf. Lev 23:13, 18, 37). The idea behind this combination of food offerings seems to be that a good meal would not be complete without meat and bread as well as a drink combined.”

When we consider the two places Paul utilizes this imagery, there are two issues I would like to zero in on: (1) What kind of sacrifice does Paul have in mind with his metaphor? and (2) What does it say about the disputed authorship of II Timothy?

Philippians 2:17

“In his letters Paul took over the Jewish-Christian interpretation of the death of Jesus which saw its saving efficacy in terms of OT sacrificial language...And in Phil. 2:17 he sees his own impending martyrdom in similar terms: 'Even if I am to be poured [spendomai] as a libation upon the sacrificial offering [epi te thysia kai leitourgia] of your faith, I am glad and rejoice with you all' (cf. Phil. 19-26). It has been argued that the use of the vb. spendomi ('pour out') is never used of the pouring out of blood sacrifice, and that Paul has in mind not his death but his apostolic labors (cf. R.P. Martin...). However, the use of the word thysia and the fact that Paul was in prison expecting the possibility of execution suggest that Paul was thinking of his death, not as a propitiatory sacrifice but as a freewill offering for the sake of the church.” (C. Brown)

Melick feels that 'poured out' definitely referred to the procedure of pouring a drink offering either before or after the offering itself....Some interpret this to mean his impending martyrdom, of which Paul was certain. Others think of it in terms of his apostolic ministry, which often included suffering. While Paul may have entertained the idea of martyrdom, he was not unduly pessimistic at this point. His language is reflective. It seems to be a verbalization of thoughts about his life and its meaning ...While many think of Paul's life as the offering, that blurs the metaphor.”

“Thysia and leitourgia, sacrificial service, the Philippians' faith, are what Paul rejoices over...” Reumann notes that in the Greco-Roman world, blood was rarely used as a libation. “Paul has no intention to commit suicide. He is already pouring himself out as a libation in his missionary career and current situation. Therefore not of death, let alone martyrdom, but apostolic labors and sufferings, including now prison [are what he is speaking about].”

Martin: “The verb means 'to pour out as a drink offering' and denotes, in sacrificial terms, a violent, even a bloody, death...The essential part of the sacrificial ritual, however, is not to be discovered in the libation described by the verb. The real sacrifice is that of the Philippians' faith...They are offering their faith in the closeness of their fellowship with the apostle and by their active support of his needs.” Melick agrees with this interpretation, as do the following three commentators.

“Paul wants them to see his death as an act of worship...The Philippians are portrayed as priests at an altar offering up the sacrificial gift of their faith. Paul's life blood is being poured out as a libation.., the completion or crowning touch to their offering of faith.” (Craddock)

Hughes says, “Paul saw the Philippians as priests offering a sacrificial offering of faith, followed by his pouring his own libation over it...he viewed his service as a complement or contribution to their service.”

Hendricksen: “The pouring out of Paul's blood is a reason for joy to him as long as it can be considered a drink offering which crowns the sacrificial offering brought by the Philippians...their “Christian life and conduct, springing from faith.”

II Timothy 4:6

Let us first deal with two comments from those who feel that II Timothy was written by an author other than Paul:

“Harrison finds it inconceivable that such a metaphor [as found in Philippians] could have been stored in Paul's mind during the four or five intervening years, but the idea of a Christian martyr's life-blood being a libation or drink-offering was sufficiently striking when it had once caught the imagination of a man like Paul, to recur to his mind on many occasions.” (Guthrie) I would add to Guthrie's objection to Harrison's ridiculous notion the fact that even I, with my much more limited mind than Paul's, can still vividly remember special quips and comebacks I came up with almost 70 years ago and quote them verbatim.

Then there is Hanson, who states that “the author has modelled much of the language of 4:4-22 on Phil. 2:12-30. The two passages have in common the figure of a libation; instructions about the sending and arrival of assistants; a complaint of being deserted; a reference to Timothy working for the gospel; a reference to the race that Paul has run (Phil. 1:16 and 2 Tim. 4:7); and a reference to a coming judicial decision about Paul. We could say of 2 Tim. 4:5-18 that it is Phil. 2:12-13 rewritten in the light of Paul's death as a martyr.”

Addressing that theory, Towner responds, “The language of this section is thought to echo (or depend on) Phil 2:12-18...However, theories of literary dependence generally presume the author of 2 Timothy could not be Paul, and an excessive tone of self-exaltation is often detected in this depiction of Pauline faithfulness. Whatever the difficulties involved in the argument for authenticity, this kind of criticism is entirely subjective and without weight.”

You may have picked up on the fact that both Harrison and Hanson basically criticize II Timothy 4:6 for being too close in language and thought to Paul's genuine writing in Philippians. That is interesting since liberal scholars commenting on other passages in the “inauthentic” or “pseudo-Pauline” letters in the NT often take the exactly opposite tack of claiming that the language utilized in those pious forgeries differs too much from Paul's genuine letters to be seriously considered as Pauline. In other words, with these critics you are damned if you do and damned if you don't. Next are some closing comments on this libation from scholars who do believe in Paul as the author of II Timothy 4:6.

Ward: “If we think of the libation as coming after the sacrifice, then death is the climax of earthly worship. Philippians 2:17 points in this direction, but it should not be pressed. A preacher's illustration repeated after a matter of years need not be an exact repetition.”

Lea says that Paul “compared the pouring out of his energy in ministry to the pouring out of the wine of an Old Testament drink offering...They were totally expended [The English word 'spent'' comes from spendomai] or poured out as an accompaniment to the burnt offering in the sanctuary (Num 28:7). ...Paul was aware that he was slowly dying in God's service, and he felt that the shedding of his blood in martyrdom would complete the drink offering to God...The priests received none of the drink offering. These facts make Paul's use of the image all the more significant.”

 

GENESIS 25:22

This verse occurs in the middle of the story of the birth of Jacob and Esau. Van Dam and Swart summarize the action thusly:

“It was noteworthy that Esau and Jacob 'jostled each other' (rss) in the womb before their birth (Gen 25:22). Alarmed, Rebekah inquired of Yahweh for an explanation. He said, 'Two nations are within your womb, and two peoples within you will be separated; one people will be stronger than the other, and the older will serve the younger' (v. 23). Thus, the prebirth friction would carry over into later conflict.”

Kline and Knauth both comment on the fact that Rebekah was the one to receive the oracle:

    “It is highly interesting...that it was to Rebekah, rather than to Isaac himself, that God had revealed his plans for succession of the promise, as it been Rebekah who had taken the initiative to inquire of God in the first place (Gen 25:22). (Knauth)

    “Rebekah, as perhaps Isaac too, had recourse to a sanctified place, probably one of the patriarchal altars, in her distressed calling on God. Why, she wondered, had God healed her barrenness, if the issue of her conception would be unhappy, as the inner struggle made her fear it would.” (Kline)

The distress suffered by Rebekah at this point is addressed below:

    Wenham: “The pregnancy is so painful that she wonders if there is any point going on living. After they had grown up, Rebekah had similar thoughts (27:46).”

    Fokkelman: “How cruelly the sweet expectations of children, the greater after twenty years of hope and despair, are dashed for Isaac and Rebekah! As early as the pregnancy their parental happiness is threatened. 'What shall I do' Rebekah wonders in despair.”

This brings us to one of the two key points I would like to stress in this verse – Exactly what were the words spoken by Rebekah in response to her discomfort? Below is a brief survey of the renderings of several translations and paraphrases of her words.

The first five translations below treat the Hebrew wording here as too obscure or uncertain to render into English, and so they fall back on the early Syriac version instead as a guide:

    RSV – “If it is thus, why do I live?”

    NRSV – “If it is to be this way, why do I live?”

    JB – If this is the way of it, why go on living.”

    The Message – “If this is the way it's going to be, why go on living?”

    Living Bible – “I can't endure this.”

Then there are those translations who do not rely on the Syriac, but attempt to make sense out of the Hebrew directly:

    KJV – “If it be so, why am I thus?”

    TEV – “Why should something like this happen to me?”

    NIV – “Why is this happening to me?”

NEB – “If this is how it is with me, what does it mean?”

Wenham translates it as “If it is like this, why am I here?” His opinion is that resorting to the Syriac version is “unnecessary.”

Then there is Hamilton, who starts with the literal Hebrew words – “If thus, why this, I?” and renders it as, “If this is so, why ever I...?” His explanation of this truncated saying is that “Rebekah suddenly breaks off her thought.” And that may just be the best way to treat this difficult subject.

There was one other issue regarding this annunciation and birth story that struck me. I seemed to see several parallels between the birth of Jacob and the nativity story as told by Luke.

Luke 1:25 – Elizabeth conceives and says, “This is what the Lord has done for me when he looked favorably on me and took away the disgrace I have endured among my people.” Compare that miraculous answer to prayer with Rebekah's sudden ability to have children after many years of barrenness (Genesis 25:21). Of course, even more miraculous is the fact that Mary the virgin will be having a son at all.

Luke 1:33 – The angel Gabriel tells Mary that her Son “will reign over the house of Jacob forever...” That oracle foretells a favorable a glorious future for her son and can also be taken as the ultimate fulfillment of God's prediction in Genesis 25:23 that Jacob would be the founder of a nation which would surpass that of Esau.

Luke 1:41-44 – Interestingly, Mary's cousin Elizabeth feels the baby in her womb move as soon as pregnant Mary enters the room. And she exclaims, “And why has this happened to me, that the mother of my Lord comes to me?” This is a clear echo of Genesis 25:22 (See especially the NIV translation above) in which Rebekah feels movement within her womb. But whereas Rebekah predicts only foreboding events from her sons' movements, Elizabeth reads only glad tidings from her son's actions.

Van Dam and Swart also pick up on this correspondence with the life of Jacob in these verses. They note that the Septuagint rendering of the Hebrew word rss (jostle or wrestle) in Genesis 25:22 is translated into the Greek word skirtao. “This vb. also occurs in Luke 1:41,44, where it is used of the baby (John the Baptist) in Elizabeth's womb. Here the action carries a positive message.”

Luke 2:34f – There are many predictions of the future greatness of Jesus given to Mary which are found in the first two chapters of Luke, but among them is that of Simeon in 2:34-35 which also states, “And a sword will pierce your own soul too.” This is the same sort of mixed blessing that Rebekah received earlier in Genesis 25:23 when she was told by God that the two people arising from her sons would be divided and not united.

Luke 3:23-38 – Luke traces Jesus' line by way of his presumed father Joseph all the way back to Jacob.

Luke 6:28 – Jesus says, “Bless them that curse you and pray for those who abuse you.” This is a noted reversal of Isaac's blessing on Jacob in Genesis 27:29: “Cursed be everyone who curses you, and blessed be everyone who blesses you.” And Isaac's words certainly fit the tenor of the whole New Testament (especially Luke 2:34), which teaches that everyone in the world will be judged ultimately by their relationship to Jesus Christ. In addition, the preceding words of blessing to Jacob in Genesis 27:29 state, “Be lord over your brothers and may your mother's sons bow down to you.”  And, of course, we know that even though Jesus' half-brothers mocked Jesus' pretentions to greatness at first, they (James and Jude) became his loyal followers after the post-resurrection appearances.

 

ARE WE TO REMEMBER OR OBSERVE THE SABBATH? (EXODUS 20:8; DEUTERONOMY 5:12)

 

Are we to remember or to observe the Sabbath? (Exodus 20:8; Deuteronomy 5:12)

The Ten Commandments, or Decalogue, appears in two slightly different forms within the Old Testament, and that is especially true of one particular commandment.

As Durham puts it: “The fourth commandment is the longest in the Decalogue, because it is the most expanded of all the commandments. No other commandment has received as much reapplication and as many defining and justifying clauses as this one.”

And Childs says, “In the history of the critical study of the Decalogue over the last hundred years certainly more attention has been devoted to this commandment than most of the others.”

The Anchor Bible translation is typical in demonstrating the differences found in just the opening words of each:

    Exodus 20:8 – “Remember (zkr) the Sabbath day and keep it holy.”

    Deuteronomy 5:12 – “Observe (smr) the Sabbath day to keep it holy, as YHWH your God has commanded you.”

The respective opening verbs in other English versions of these parallel passages include the following variations:

    remember, keep – KJV, RSV, NIV, NEB

    remember, observe – JB, NRSV

    observe, observe – TEV

    observe, keep – Living Bible

    observe, “no working on” – The Message

As you can see, the two Hebrew words are used practically interchangeably with one another in these renderings. And this understanding is found in most of the commentaries on these passages, as seen below:

Meyes on Deuteronomy 5 says, “Observe: Exod. 20:8 has 'remember'. The latter is probably original, and the change should be seen along with the verb 'aseh [keep] at the end of the commandment (v. 15, 'to keep'; this does not appear in the Exodus version), for the two verbs together form a fixed idiomatic expression in Deuteronomy in the context of the proclamation of the law; cf. 5:23; 6:3, 17f., 25, etc...”

Durham states that the Hebrew word in Exodus “means 'remember,' as always in contexts of covenantal obligation, in the sense of 'observe without lapse' or 'hold as a present and continuing priority.' SamPent [the Samaritan Penteteuch] reads 'aseh 'keep,' as does the parallel version of the commandment in Deut 5:12.” He cites scholars who argue as to which verb is the original but concludes with the words: “Noth and Andreasen argue that both verbs, in this usage, come to mean about the same thing.”

“The positive formulation of the commandment [in Deuteronomy] has some small differences which distinguish it from the form of the commandment in Exod. 20:8-11, and which are further evidence of its horatory [i.e. aiming to exhort] style in which the commandment is presented in Deuteronomy. The The Hebrew word used in v. 12 is shamor, 'take care'; in Exod. 20:8; it is rather zakor, 'remember' or 'remembering in.'” (Craigie)

Cousins says, “The slight differences in vv. 12-14 [of Deuteronomy 5] between this and the form in Exodus are not important.”

“The first version of the Ten Commandments, in the fourth commandment, grounds this rest in God's own creation Sabbath (Exod. 20:8-11)...The second version of the fourth commandment (Deut 5:12-15), however, grounds Sabbath observance in a different motive – namely, the Israelite remembers his experience of slavery and deliverance...Theologians will describe the difference by saying that Exodus 20:11 appeals to creation, while Deuteronomy 5:15 appeals to redemption. It would be a mistake to contrast these, however...Exodus itself brings the two together (31:12-17).” (C.J. Collins)

Weinfeld: “In the Exodus version the verb for observing is zkr: 'Remember the Sabbath day to keep it holy.' In fact, there is no significant difference between the two, for both verbs, zkr and smr, connote 'keep' as well as 'remember.' Thus we find in Gen 37:11 that Jacob 'kept (smr) the matter' (i.e., Joseph's dream), which means remembered it or kept it in mind.' smr and zkr parallel each other in Ps 103:18.” He also cites Esther 9:28 as another example.

H.R. Jones sees a possible added significance to the use of “remember” in Exodus 20 when he states that “this is no new command. It goes back to Gen. 2:103 This could have been forgotten by the Israelites while in Egypt, and there are no references to it in patriarchal times.”

Lastly, we have some comments on the basic meanings of smr and zkr from linguistic experts:

smr – “Among the most frequent uses of the vb. is the admonition to be careful and diligent in respect to religious and spiritual responsibilities.” (Schoville)

zkr – “The root and its derivatives have crucial roles in the OT. On the human level, the words embrace reflection, especially on what is in the past. Such reflection may lead to regret or relief, or more actively appreciation and commitment. God's remembering has to do with his attention and intervention, whether in grace or in judgment. Religious worship is the context where human and divine usage come together, in the fellowship of praise and blessing...Rather than denoting simply a mental process, remembering frequently induces present action...The Israelites' historical experience of being slaves in Egypt is urged as a reason to include their slaves in the Sabbath rest and in the Feast of Weeks (Deut 5:15; 16:12)...To remember the Sabbath day (Exod 20:8; cf. 'observe,' Deut 5:12) is to observe it by abstaining from work.” (Allen)

PARALLELS BETWEEN JACOB AND SATAN

At a recent sermon I heard, the pastor noted in passing that there were several parallels between the patriarch Jacob and Satan. I decided to ferret out some of these, with the following results:

Genesis 3:1a

We first run into Satan in Genesis 3, where he is described as being “more subtle than any other creature.” Other translations call him “more crafty.” We could also call him “devious.” And this is really the hallmark of Jacob throughout his life in his dealings with Esau, his father, and Laban. Interestingly, Foulkes uses the same adjective above to characterize Jacob: “weak, crafty, scheming.”

Genesis 3:1b-7

This is perhaps the closest parallel to the life of Jacob. Satan, in the form of the serpent, lies and tells half-truths to Adam and Eve in order to tempt them to eat of the Tree the Knowledge of Good and Evil against God's express command. In a similar manner, Jacob tempts Esau to trade his birthright for a bowl of red lentil stew (Genesis 25:29-34). And if ancient traditions which state that the fruit in the garden was a pomegranate are correct, then there is even a similarity in the reddish-brown color of both foods.

In addition, the major sin of both Satan and Jacob here is to disrupt or co-opt God's preordained plan by taking things into their own hands instead of recognizing His omniscience and omnipotence and relying on Him.

And a third similarity is the fact that in each story it is a woman who helps to orchestrate the scheming.

Genesis 3:15

As part of the curse on the serpent (i.e. Satan) in this verse, God uses the key word “heel.” It is in the context of Satan bruising the heel of the seed of the woman (primarily referring to Jesus). That rare Hebrew word (aqeb) only appears seven times in the Old Testament, one of which incidentally also appears in the birth story of Jacob and Esau (Genesis 25:26) in which Jacob attempts to supplant his brother by grasping at his heel to try to prevent him from being born first. So both Satan and Jacob will attempt to attack a heel but be wounded in the effort.

The other part of the curse involves God putting enmity between Satan and “the woman.” In its context that refers to Eve and her female descendants, but it also applies in another sense to Jacob's dishonest actions driving a wedge between himself and his beloved mother Rebekah so that he will be forced to flee from his home and not see her alive again.

Genesis 3:21

Before God casts Adam and Eve from the Garden, He demonstrates His grace by dressing both of them in animal skins. In a perversion of that action, you may recall that Jacob tricked his blind father into giving him the preferred blessing by putting animal skins on his arms so that he would feel like his hairier brother (Genesis 27:15-17).

Job 1-2

In this prelude to the book, we see Satan up to his usual tricks thinking that he can disgrace God's model human being, Job, and God Himself in the process. God allows him to try to get Job to curse God by visiting one catastrophe after another on him. But amazingly, Satan's ploy backfires and Job's faith brings him through the crisis. In the same manner, Jacob schemes his way through life feeling that only by his own actions can he get what he wants. But in the final analysis, it is Jacob's own actions which get him into much more trouble than if he had merely trusted in God's promise in the begnning.

I Chronicles 21:1

Satan incites, or tempts, David into conducting a census of all the people of Israel. That plays into David's lust for more earthly power just as Jacob's actions were driven by his visions of future greatness. In both cases, nothing good came from giving in to such desires since neither seemed to take God's own will into consideration.

Zechariah 3:1-2

This strange story takes place in heaven where Satan acts as a prosecuting attorney hoping to get the high priest Joshua excluded from heaven. Instead, Satan is rebuked for his actions, and God trades in Joshua's soiled clothing for a brand new outfit. We see again Satan's hatred for the human race, especially for those chosen by God. In addition, the important theme of changing garments earlier seen in Adam and Eve's fall as well as Jacob's deceit of Jacob recurs here also.

Matthew 4:10

This is practically a replay of Jacob's temptation of Esau with food when the latter comes in from hunting and announces that he is famished. The same is said of Jesus after he had been fasting in the wilderness. In both cases, the tempter (Jacob and Satan) invites the other party to partake of food. Only whereas Esau gives in, the same cannot be said of Jesus.

Luke 10:18

When the apostles come back from a missionary journey, they note that they did not run into any major opposition. Jesus explains to them that he had seen Satan fall from heaven. If you recall, up to this point in history Satan is pictured as having free access to God's presence. In a similar manner, Jacob fell from his former position in the bosom of his family to the point where he was forced to a situation of servitude under Laban. We could even see here a parallel between Jesus “seeing” the angel Satan fall from heaven and Jacob “seeing” angels descending a ladder that reached from heaven to earth.

II Corinthians 11:14

Paul describes Satan as one who disguises himself as an angel of light. But the word “disguise” should also remind us powerfully of another personage in the Bible who disguised himself in order to deceive – Jacob with his faked hairy skin.

I John 3:8

In this verse, John characterizes Satan as a sinner from the beginning, which is ceratainly true in his first appearance on the scene in the Garden. But the same could be equally said of Jacob, who began his checkered career of grasping and deceit while still in the womb.

Revelation 20:1-3

Toward the end of time, Satan will be cast into a pit where he will be kept until he is later released for a short time. This did not happen to Jacob himself, but to his beloved son Joseph instead as a sort of proxy for Jacob (Genesis 37:24).

And continuing the pattern of deceit in that family, Jacob is himself fooled as to the circumstances of Joseph's absence by the use of clothing. This may be another echo of Genesis 3 in which clothing first makes its appearance on the scene. These verses also contain the last mention of Satan's “deceit” of mankind.

Conclusion

I don't know if others find interesting these sort of thematic threads running throughout Scripture from Genesis to Revelation, but I certainly do. Besides being a curiosity, they help establish the unity of the whole Bible and show the hidden hand of God behind everything that happens on earth.