Daniel 1:8
Did Daniel reject wine due to kosher food regulations spelled out in
Leviticus 19:23?
We can't go at all by
current Jewish practices regarding wine consumption since the
Levitical laws were greatly expanded and re-interpreted throughout
the ages. For example, kosher wine, according to some schools of
thought, must be made in a factory where no Gentile looks on the wine
until it is bottled. Instead, we must try to determine what the Jews
during Daniel's time thought about the regulations, and that is not
easy.
The first thing to note
about the command in Leviticus 19:23 is that it is not placed with
the other kosher food regulations in Leviticus. This is probably
because it is, strictly speaking, not a kosher regulation at all, but
a rule involving a first fruit offering instead. As such, it was to
be practiced by the Jews when they entered the Promised Land for the
first time and planted their first crops. The first good crop
(usually not until the fourth year after planting) was to be given to
God to thank him for leading them there. This sort of thanks offering
would be totally inappropriate for Jews being led into exile.
Even if the prohibition
against drinking wine from the first few years' crop did carry over
into the Exile, two commentaries I consulted noted that the
Babylonians at that time had an identical regulation in which the
first three years' grape crop could not be used. Thus, Daniel would
have had no problem drinking any Babylonian wine.
The third major question is
whether the fruit trees in Leviticus 19:23 refer to grape vines at
all. I did a fairly extensive examination of all the passages in the
Old Testament where tree, fruit, grape, wine or vine occurs. In the
vast majority of these passages vines and trees are distinguished
from one another by being listed separately (for example, Haggai
2:19, Amos 4:9, Psalm 105:33, Isaiah 36:16, etc.). In two stories
especially, Judges 9:8-15 and Ezekiel 15:1-8 (where “vine tree”
is better translated “wood of the vine”), the meaning in each
passage revolves around the crucial differences between a tree and a
vine.
The only place where a grape
vine might possibly be called a fruit tree is in Nehemiah 10:35-37.
Some translations of verse 37 read “and to bring the first of our
dough, and our contributions, the fruit of every tree, the wine and
the oil, to the priests...” With this punctuation, it implies that
both olive oil and wine come from tree fruit. However, there was no
punctuation in the original, and others translate it as “and to
bring the first of our dough, and our contributions, the fruit of
every tree, the wine, and the oil to the priests...” This
understanding clearly separates the fruit of the vine from the fruit
of trees.
Even if Nehemiah 10:35-37
does imply that grape vines are fruit trees (and thus fall under the
regulation of Leviticus 19:23), it only shows that this was the new
understanding in Nehemiah's time (many decades after the events in
Daniel 1).
The
final argument involves the events in Daniel 10:3, years after
Daniel's initial entry into the Babylonian court. In that verse,
Daniel again vows that no wine will touch his lips, the implication
being that he had been drinking wine up to that time. Putting these
two verses together, we can conclude that in both cases Daniel was
entering into a time of voluntary fasting, such as practiced at Lent,
for a particular reason. It therefore has nothing to do with any
dietary restrictions spelled out in Leviticus.
Daniel
1:15-16 How
could only 10 days on a different diet have made a visible
difference?
As
it is doubtful that it would have done so, we should probably take
this as evidence of God miraculously working behind the scenes.
Daniel
2:4-11
The footnote on this passage in The
Daily Bible
says “The text from here through chapter 7 is in Aramaic.” Is
Daniel believed to have originally been written in partial Aramaic?
Is it possible a later scribe wrote/translated this part in Aramaic?
Why would the original author or a later scribe write a portion, or
specifically this portion, in Aramaic as opposed to the Hebrew in
which the rest of the book was written? Very curious. Look forward
to your response.
This
is an intriguing question, and one that has puzzled scholars for
years. In fact, Daniel is not the only book in which this phenomenon
occurs. There is the same mixture of languages in Ezra and Nehemiah
(which I will deal with when we get to those books). I believe that
the best explanation for the use of dual languages in all these books
is a literary one. So below are some excerpts from my unpublished
book The
Structure of Scripture
that attempt to deal with this question (I have eliminated all the
footnoted references for convenience sake, but can supply them to
anyone who is interested).
One
feature of Daniel is the way in which the book is divided by original
languages of composition. Verses 2:4b-7:28 are in Aramaic while the
rest is in Hebrew. Gammie declares, “Scholars have not yet come up
with an altogether convincing explanation for the two-fold languages
in the book.” Similarly, after reviewing several theories, Young
concludes, “There does not appear to be any truly satisfactory
explanation of the two languages.” Many scholars posit an original
Aramaic document to which additional Hebrew writings were appended or
which was partially translated into Hebrew. But why was the entire
document not translated into the same language? Alternatively, it
has been suggested that the Aramaic portions of the book are those
most suited for a non-Jewish audience or that they are most
appropriate for those stories that focus on international events.
Looking
at the general subjects and genre that occur in Daniel, one comes up
with a slightly different division for the book. Namely, the first
six chapters are widely recognized as court tales (similar to the
Book of Esther) involving Daniel and his friends while the rest of
the book consists of various visions and revelations usually
classified as apocalyptic literature. Also, chapters 1-6 refer to the
heroes in the third person while chapters 7-12 are narrated by Daniel
himself.
“The
most perplexing anomaly lies in the fact that the division on the
basis of form and date does not coincide with the division on the
basis of language.” In other words, why is Chapter 1 in Hebrew
instead of Aramaic as are the other court stories of Daniel, and why
isn't Chapter 7 in Hebrew with the other visions of the second half
of the book?
The
answer to the first question is that Chapter 1 is written in Hebrew
to highlight its unique function. As Collins has noted, “The
position of ch.1 is ambiguous.” It is not only a court tale as are
the stories in chapters 2-6, but also serves as an introduction to
the entire book. This chapter links the reader, through the
character of Daniel, to the exile at start of the chapter and to the
return with its mention of Cyrus at end.
Similarly,
the retaining of Chapter 7 in Aramaic acts as “an interlocking
device” to tie together the two halves of the book. As Sims
states, “Chapter 7 has been widely recognized as the structural
link between the two parts, so strongly binding the two that efforts
to separate them are futile.” Baldwin puts the case even more
strongly: “There are good reasons for thinking that ch. 7 is the
key to the whole book, even its focal point.” This pivotal role of
Chapter 7 is also seen in the way its ambiguity allows the pictured
four-kingdom scheme to either refer backwards to the four sovereigns
who have already appeared in the first six chapters or forward to the
future realms of chapters 8-12. Similarly, Stead notes that “both
the stories and the visions of book of Daniel are read together as
providing complementary perspectives rather than opposing
viewpoints.” A final indication of the structural importance of
Chapter 7 is the fact that the attribution of the words of the book
jointly to God and the prophet is not given until Daniel 7:1. This is
unlike the other prophetic books, whose similar attributions are
given in the opening verses.
The
two halves of the book are further united in a more general and basic
fashion, as pointed out by several commentators:
"...the
evidence of verbal and thematic interlocking between the narrative
and apocalyptic parts of Daniel works against the view that the book
consists of two distinct genres unequally yoked together...clear
visions and confused history [are] followed by clear history and
puzzling visions.”
"The
first part of the book prepares for the second, and the second looks
back to the first.”
"...both
parts of Daniel have the same purpose: to reveal heavenly realities
and events that are to come in the world. In this sense, both are
apocalyptic."
"In
effect, the book records both the external [chapters 1-6] and the
internal [chapters 7-12] history of Daniel."
"Throughout
the book the kingdom of God provides the frame for human history. In
the tales this is acknowledged primarily in the doxologies."
"...the
stories, like the visions, portray a God who rules in heaven who is
also sovereign over the realm of death, who is active in the past and
trustworthy for the future...It is a mixed form, as much a series of
short stories to which visions are attached as a series of visions
prefaced by some stories."
Daniel
2:5,8 Why
did he demand that they first tell him the dream?
For
the same reason that fortune-tellers often start out by telling some
verifiable fact to a person before telling their future. It builds
confidence in the future predictions. This indicates also that the
king did not really trust the “experts” in his court (v. 9).
Daniel 2:37
Why would the king have been chosen by God when he wasn't even a
Jew?
OT prophets mention that
Babylon was chosen by God as his instrument to punish the Jews.
However, it in turn will be judged by God.
It serves God purposes by
bringing the Jew's history into world history
Cyrus was even called
Messiah by God for his role in returning the Jews to Israel. Read
Isaiah 45:1-7.
Daniel 2:46-47
Why would Daniel take part in a pagan worship ceremony?
The
situation is actually worse than that. The worship was actually to
Daniel. This is perhaps a warning to us that no human being, even
Daniel, is perfect. It could be that Daniel didn't make a big deal
over it since (a) he had carefully told the king ahead of time that
it was God who did the interpreting and (b) the king did give credit
where credit was due in verse 47.
Daniel
3:19
What does it mean that the furnace was heated to seven times its
usual heat? The only way this would make sense is if the temperature
was measured from absolute zero.
One
possible answer is that seven times the usual amount of fuel was
used. A more likely explanation is that this is one of many OT and NT
examples where the number seven is used in its symbolic sense of
“complete” or “perfection.” In other words, the oven was
heated as hot as it could possibly get.
Daniel
3:25 Who
is the fourth person?
The
text literally reads “son of God,” which is used for angels
elsewhere in the Bible. See verse 28 for
the king's opinion. Some see
him as Jesus, which would be appropriate since Jesus came down to
earth
and suffered alongside of us. That adds additional significance
to the statement,“Only their bonds were
burned.”
Daniel
4:1-3 This
chapter is narrated by Nebuchadnezzar himself, but he uses almost
biblical language
here. Would he have likely spoken that way?
One
possibility is that this may be good evidence of Daniel's witnessing
to him.
Daniel
4:6-7 Why
didn't King approach Daniel first?
Possibly
the king already knew roughly what the dream meant and didn't want to
have anything to do
with Daniel and his God until forced to as a last
resort. Also, he hoped his other counselors would give
a more
favorable interpretation. We want people to tell us what we want to
hear, not what we need to
hear.
Daniel
4:19 We
can understand why the king is terrified, but why Daniel also?
We
can only speculate here. Possibilities are that Daniel is afraid for
his life if he tells the truth (“kill
the messenger” syndrome),
he is genuinely concerned for the king's welfare, he is in awe of
God's
power, or he is afraid of what will happen to the Jews if the
king is removed from power.
Daniel
4:33 I
have read that the author of Daniel confused Nabonidus
(father of Belshazzar) with
Nebuchadnezzar.
There
is a Dead Sea Scroll fragment from about 50 BC which tells a similar
story about Nabonidus.
Conservative scholars say that it is more
likely that the author of the fragment was the one confused.
However,
there are cuneiform records which mention Nabonidus being
incapacitated for a while. Josh
McDowell's Daniel
in the Critics' Den
deals with this and other historical issues in detail. There is of
course also the possibility that God may have similarly afflicted
both kings.
Daniel
9:24
Why doesn't the spectacular
fact that this verse predicted to the day when Jesus entered
Jerusalem convince more people of the truth of the Bible?
Payne’s
Encyclopedia
of Biblical Prophecy,
pp. 384-385 shows that there have been several other
accepted ways to
understand this prophecy that differ completely in regard to the
proper starting event,
method of assigning “weeks,” and nature of
the actual fulfillment. There are several problems with the
method
usually employed to come up with this understanding. The main one is
that a 360-day year is
needed for the dates to come out right.
Although Jews used a 30-day month in their calendar, their
calendar
year was, of course, 365 1/4 days just like ours (They added make-up
days periodically so that
their winter months didn’t slowly turn
into summer months, etc.) Commentators have noted that it is
highly
unlikely that such a calculation (360 days = one year) was intended.