ARE BIBLE PARAPHRASES USEFUL? (ROMANS 3:19)

Is there any place where a Bible paraphrase should be used, or should we always stick to more literal translations? This is not really a simple question to answer since it depends on several factors. Let me illustrate it with a somewhat randomly chosen NT passage: Romans 3:19. First, let's look at how the original Greek reads in a literal word-for-word English translation:

    “We know but that whatever things the law says to the [ones] in the law, it speaks in order that every mouth may be stopped and under judgment may become all the world of God.”

There are a number of translations that adhere fairly closely to this original, other than changing around the word order a bit to keep it from sounding like Yoda-talk. Here is how the NRSV renders this verse:

    “Now we know that whatever the law says, it speaks to those who are under the law, so that every mouth may be silenced and the whole world may be held accountable to God.”

At this point, the reader may have a few questions regarding the meaning of Paul's words. For example:

1. What “law” is he talking about? A new reader to the Bible might wonder if it refers to the civil and criminal laws of the Roman world at that time. However, those more knowledgeable concerning the Old Testament would realize that there are actually four ways that the word “law” could be construed by Jews: the Pentateuch (first five books of the Bible), all of the rules and regulations contained in the Pentateuch, the Ten Commandments, or the entire Old Testament.

                        2. Who are the people under the law? 

                        3. Why would God want to silence everyone?

                        4. What is the nature of the accountability to God?

Let us look next at some versions of Romans 3:19 that are not as literal, but also not a free paraphrase either, to see if they go further than NRSV in addressing these questions:

    TEV: “Now we know that everything in the Law applies to those who live under the Law, in order to stop all human excuses and bring the whole world under God's judgment.” 

By capitalizing the word “Law,” the reader is at least alerted to the fact that it doesn't just refer to any laws formulated by mankind. Also, this version helpfully explains what “stopping the mouth” means. And thirdly, we now realize that these people are accountable to God, who will render some sort of judgment on them. By the way, one can't simply look at the Greek manuscripts to see if “Law” is capitalized or not since those documents were for the most part either written all in capitals or all in lower case letters.

    NEB: “Not all the words of the law are addressed, as we know, to those who are within the pale of the law, so that no one may have anything to say in self-defence, but the whole world may be exposed to the judgement of God.” 

This British version doesn't really add anything more in understanding the verse than does TEV, and has the disadvantage of utilizing unique British spellings of “defence” and “judgement,” as well as using the phrase “under the pale,” which may not be understandable to many readers.

    Jerusalem Bible: “Now all this that the Law* says is said, as we know, for the benefit of those who are subject to the Law, but it is meant to silence everyone and to lay the whole world open to God's judgment.” *“'Law' here means all the O.T.” 

The translators' note is part of the text of JB and answers Question 1 above, at least in the mind of the translators. Also, the use of “subject to the Law” goes a way toward explain what it means to be “under the Law.”

Now, at last, we come to the category of true Bible paraphrases of Romans 3:18, beginning with:

    The Living Bible: “So the judgment of God lies very heavily upon the Jews, for they are responsible to keep God's laws instead of doing all these evil things; not one of them has any excuse; in fact, all the world stands hushed and guilty before Almighty God.” 

At last, we have an English version that makes it clear that “those under the Law” are, in fact, the Jews. But then, this paraphrase makes it also abundantly clear that all of us, not just the Jews, are guilty before God. Note also how the Living Bible with its phrase “all these evil things” clearly directs the reader's attention back to the previous verses, Romans 3:10-18, with its catalog of sins.

    J.B. Phillips: “We know what the message of the Law is to those who live under it – that every excuse may die on the lips of him who makes it and no living man may think himself beyond the judgment of God.” 

In its day, this was not at all a bad rendering. However, one off-putting feature today is the introduction of the gender-specific words “him” and “man,” when they are clear additions to the original Greek wording. In rendering other verses, however, I should point out that the male gender is definitely indicated and should not be translated with a gender-neutral term.

    The Message: “This makes it clear, doesn't it, that whatever is written in these Scriptures is not what God says about others, but to us to whom these Scriptures were addressed in the first place! And it's clear enough, isn't it, that we're sinners, every one of us, in the same sinking boat with everyone else?” 

Now, at last, we have a very vivid and understandable rendering of Romans 3:19. But, unfortunately, it raises its own set of questions:

    1. Is Eugene Peterson implying that “Law” in the Greek of this verse is just limited to what is written in the preceding nine verses from the OT?

    2. To whom were these verses “addressed in the first place?”

    3. Does “the same sinking boat” really convey the meaning behind the Greek text, or was it just chosen by Peterson because it has a nice ring to it?

To address the first question, we must go back first to the string of OT quotations that came before verse 19. They are drawn from Isaiah, Psalms, and Proverbs. Thus, they represent ideas taken from the Prophets and the Writings, which together with the Law constituted the whole Hebrew Bible. So in that sense, one could certainly not say that they represent “the Law,” as the Greek states. Also, Peterson limits the meaning of “Scripture” (elsewhere in Paul's writings referring clearly to the Old Testament) by modifying it with the word “these,” so that it clearly refers to only the six preceding quotations. This is quite a contrast to the understanding of the Jerusalem Bible which applies Paul's reference to the whole of the Old Testament.

Then, concerning Question 3, my personal opinion is that the Living Bible is really too loose a rendering of the original. To equate the Final Judgment with being on a sinking ship does make sense in a way if Peterson is saying that we all live on an earth that will pass away eventually. But I don't really think that it clarifies the meaning in any way for most readers.

I will personally admit that I am still not 100% sure how to answer Question 2, even after reading all of the versions given above. One would think that the obvious original audience for those passages was the Jews, but that seems to contradict Paul's comment in Romans 3:19 that they were originally addressed to “us,” since he was writing to a predominantly Gentile audience. So I had to turn to some commentaries on Romans to see what they had to say. Basically, there seem to be three different ways to take these verses:

    1. Although the Scriptures were originally given to the Jews, they really apply to everyone. This view is implied in JB and NEB and actually stated in The Living Bible.

    2. The Scriptures were originally intended for all people, Jew and Gentile. The Greek is vague and can easily be taken to mean this.

    3. Surprisingly, there is a third view not expressly reflected in any of the above sources, and it is held by four prominent Bible commentators. They basically feel the context practically demands that Paul is saying that Romans 3:10-18 does not apply to the Gentiles only, but also to the Jews. Paul is addressing these words primarily to his Jewish opponents who point the finger at the Gentiles, rather than at themselves also.

        “The law, being from God, has its relevance for all mankind, certainly. But Paul's point here is that the Jew cannot rest on a fancied security, holding that he is safe while the Gentile will come under the judgment of God. (Morris)

        Fitzmyer: “Jews, who might think they are exempt from Paul's indictment, actually fall under it as well, because what the law says is applied specifically to them.” Davidson and Martin agree with this assessment.

But whether the critical words of God applied originally to the Jews only, the Gentiles only, or everyone, all are in agreement that now they condemn all people.

A final comment on translations vs. paraphrases is in order. Keep in mind that almost all true Bible translations are the product of a committee of experts. This has the effect of eliminating any gross errors in translation as well as any overly sectarian opinions. But each paraphrase of which I am aware is a product of single author, who may have his or her own set of preconceived ideas and theologies. You should always approach a paraphrase as if you were reading a Bible commentary instead.