We will discuss
these “errors,” gathered from various sources, by the order in which they appear in the
Bible.
A.
Genesis
9:3 says that all animals can be eaten while Leviticus outlines a
number that can't be eaten.
This isn't a contradiction since Genesis 9:3 was the covenant that
God made with all mankind while the later commands were strictly for
the Jews since they were to be set apart from the rest of mankind.
This
objection ignores the historical context.
B.
There is confusion as to who brought Joseph to Egypt. Was it his
brothers, Midianites or Ishmaelites?
1.
Concerning Genesis 37:28, this is a complete misunderstanding of this
verse, which is only quoted in part by critics. Here is how the whole
thing reads, “When some Midianite traders passed by, they drew
Joseph up, lifting him out of the pit, and sold him to the
Ishmaelites for 20 pieces of silver. And they took Joseph to Egypt.”
Depending on who “they” refers to in the two places in the text,
it can be interpreted as either (a) the Midianite traders took Joseph
out of the pit and sold him to the Ishmaelites or (b) the brothers
sold Joseph to the Midianites (region of origin)/Ishmaelites
(traders).
2.
And, of course, Genesis 45:4 poses no problem whatsoever. It doesn't
say that the brothers brought Joseph to Egypt at all, just that they
sold
him to those who did bring him there.
3.
Actually, in Genesis 45:5, Joseph explains that it was ultimately God
who sent him to Egypt.
C. In Exod. 12:12, God
appears to acknowledge the existence of other gods.
But that may not be
the correct meaning of this verse. As
the three commentators below explain, Egypt's so-called gods were
shown to be totally powerless to prevent the plagues visited on them
by God, demonstrating their basic non-existence.
R.
Allen Cole, Exodus:
“This may refer to the way in which the plagues affected the Nile
and the various animal symbols of the gods of the Egyptians, or it
may refer to the defeat of the spiritual powers that stand behind
these symbols.”
Bernard
Ramm, His
Way Out:
“Yahweh again showed that He is the living God, and the gods of the
Egyptians but dead pieces of stone or wood or precious metal.”
Robert
Gordon, International
Bible Commentary:
“The gods of Egypt were also to be brought into judgment. Their
ineffectualness had been demonstrated in the earlier plagues when the
natural forces thought to be under their jurisdiction were seen to be
in control of a higher power.”
Another approach is
expressed this way:
“It
was only in the course of history that the belief in the superiority
of Israel's God over all other gods led to the development of
absolute monotheism.” New
International Dictionary of OT Theology and Exegesis.
One commentator has said that “the OT writers preserve their
strong monotheism albeit with a hint of henotheism.” (Twelvetree,
NDBT, p. 796)
Many Bible scholars
feel that the Jews first believed in henotheism (one God over the
other gods) rather than in monotheism, and the fuller truth was only
revealed to them after the Babylonian captivity.
It
is actually pretty easy to demonstrate this progressive revelation of
God's nature to the Jews in the Bible: God made a covenant with
Abraham, revealed his personal name to Moses, henotheism is probably
taught in the Ten Commandments, the prophets taught absolute
monotheism, Jesus is revealed as the son of God, and finally at
Pentacost the Jews experienced the Holy Spirit.
This
whole progression is also demonstrated in the way the Book of Isaiah
is put together.
Three-fold
Structure of Isaiah
I.
Indictment for Past Sins (chs. 1-35)
II.
Historical Interlude (chs. 36-39)
III. Future
Promise (chs. 40-66)
A.
God the Father (chs. 40-48)
Short
Term – Salvation from Babylon
B.
God the Son (chs. 49-57)
Mid
Term – The Messiah (suffering
servant songs)
C. God the
Holy Spirit (chs. 58-66)
Long
Term – Ultimate Salvation
(the
term Holy Spirit only appears 3 times in the OT, two of which are
found in the exact center of IIIC)
As
G. L. Bray explains (in New
Dictionary of Biblical Theology,
p. 512) concerning monotheism and henotheism, “From a theological
point, however, there is little or no difference between the two
options. Whatever the Israelites may have thought about the gods of
the nations around them, they always regarded their own God as
supremely powerful and thus 'real' in a way that the others were not.
We may therefore conclude that Israel practiced a de
facto
monotheism from earliest times, even if this was not fully clarified
until the time of the exile or later.”
D.
“Perhaps no biblical contradiction is more difficult to comprehend
than god's (sic) refusal to frame a consistent policy concerning the
punishment of children for the sins of their parents.”
PRO:
Exod. 20:5; 2 Sam. 12:13-18; I Kings 13:34, 14:10, 21:25-29; II Kings
5:27
CON:
Deut. 24:6; II Kings 14:6; II Chron. 25:4; Jer. 31:29-30; (Ezek.
18:2-4) (Brian Bolton)
Actually,
if you look at each of these passages in their context, God is
totally consistent. In the first group of Scriptures, He announces
that it is His prerogative to mete out punishment on the family of
any Israelite who is disobedient, but in practice God only does so
directly in four cases – each of which involves a person in a very
responsible position (three kings and Elisha's servant). In the
second group of verses, God first makes it clear that the people are
never take it on themselves to carry out such punishments, only
Himself. The Ezekiel passage is addressed to the exiles who were
blaming the sinfulness of their parents for their own plight, and
Ezekiel tells them to quit complaining and concentrate on their own
sinfulness. And finally, in Jeremiah, God announces that when the New
Covenant comes into effect, even He Himself will not punish any
children for their parents' offenses.
E.
Does God get tired? Exodus and Jeremiah say yes while Isaiah says
no.
Exodus
31:17: God
rested on the 7th
day.
shabath
= to stop working
Jeremiah
15:6:
God is tired of repenting.
laah
= to make one upset
Isaiah
40:28-31:
God doesn't faint or become weary.
yaga
= physically fatigued
(Young's
Analytical Concordance)
This
criticism of the Bible, as many others, is based on the mistaken
belief that there is a complete overlap in meaning between English
and Hebrew or between English and Greek, which is rarely true. You
need to carefully consider what each word meant in the original
language and especially not compare completely different original
words just because they are occasionally translated by the same
English word.
F. Matthew 19:26
says that God can accomplish all things, but He is apparently
defeated by some chariots in Judges 1:19.
The first thing to
note is that “he” in the Judges passage refers to Judah, not God.
Next, the Matthew reference does not guarantee that God will
do all things just because He can. Also, even though presence of
chariots is given as a reason for the failure of Judah's army, there
is obviously more to it considering that God has no trouble
whatsoever defeating an army of chariots three chapters later in
Judges 4-5. One of the Jewish targums (commentaries) added the
explanatory phrase “after they had sinned” to Judges 1:19. The
fourth thing to consider is that chapter and verse divisions in our
modern Bible were not in the original and didn't get added until the
Middle Ages. Therefore they not only are not inspired, but are
sometimes quite misleading, as in this case where not only the
chapter division but also the verse division is probably in error. So
another answer to this so-called contradiction is found by
considering the literary structure of the first part of Judges.
Literary
Structure of Judges 1:1-2:5
A.
God will be with Judah (1:1-2)
B.
Judah-Simeon Alliance (1:3)
C.
Successful Military Campaigns (1:4-16)
B'.
Judah-Simeon Alliance (1:17)
A'.
God was with Judah (1:18-19a)
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
A.
Judah was unsuccessful (after sinning) (1:19b)
B.
Other tribes are partially successful (1:20-36)
A'.
Because of her sin, God will not drive out the Canaanites (2:1-5)
Adapted
from Barry G. Webb, The
Book of Judges
So
the first part of verse 19 belongs with the events when God was with
Judah while the second part belongs to the later time period after
they had sinned.
G.
Who Killed Goliath?
Was it David or Elhanan (II Samuel 21:19)?
Here
we must admit that there may be some problems in transmission of the
text. But here are five possible ways to resolve the contradiction:
1.
The parallel passage in I Chronicles 20:5 says that Elhanan killed
Goliath's brother
so “brother” may have dropped out of the Samuel text.
2.
Elhanan may have been David's original name. Remember that Solomon
had two names, and the fathers' names Jair and Jesse could have been
easily confused for one another by a scribe.
3.
Elhanan killed Oregim the Bethlemite who was with
Goliath. This translation is possible by attaching different vowels
to the consonants and looking at the grammar of the sentence in a
little different way.
4.
The name “Goliath” means “champion” or “strongman” so it
may be just a generic designation, not an actual name.
5.
This particular Goliath may have been the son of the original one.
Archeology has found the name Goliath as a common one recurring over
several generations. (Dictionary
of the OT Historical Books,
p. 356.)
G.
“The
word-for-word duplication between Isaiah 37 and II Kings 19, written
by Jeremiah, has been called the most outrageous error in the Bible.”
Actually,
I would label this The Most Outrageous Objection to the Bible for
the following reasons.
1.
No one knows who wrote the Book of Kings or when it was written.
2.
Within I-II Kings are listed several of the earlier sources used to
compose it, including The History of the Kings of Israel, The History
of the Kings of Judah, The Book of the Deeds of Solomon, prophetic
narratives (and these could include the Book of Isaiah) and Temple
records. All historians utilize historical sources.
3.
I find it hard to understand how this can be considered an error; you
can't even accuse the author of Kings of plagiarism since he lists
his sources.
4.
You might as well complain that large portions of Samuel-Kings are
duplicated word-for-word in Chronicles and that duplications appear
between the four Gospel accounts. So what?
It
really just means an additional witness to the events being narrated.
H.
Can God be found? Proverbs 8:17 says yes while Proverbs 1:28 says no.
1.
These verses refer to Lady Wisdom, not God.
2.
The nature of proverbs is to only state the general rule.
3.
All of Proverbs 1 concerns those who persistently refuse to listen to
Wisdom. This is equivalent to the hardening of hearts that appears
elsewhere in the Bible, which happens when people have already
hardened their own hearts.
4.
By contrast, all of Proverbs 8 concerns those who love Wisdom and
always seek it.
I. Do you answer
a fool or not (Proverbs 26:4-5)?
I can only imagine
what the author of this contradiction would have to say about this
quote from Samuel
Beckett found in his novel The
Unnamable
(“I can't go on,. I'll go on.”)
Or what about one of the most famous opening line from any book
written (“It was the best of times; it was the worst of times.”)
Beckett is a Nobel Prize winner in Literature, and Dickens is often
considered the best novelist who ever lived. Should you dismiss these
as nonsensical contradictions or give the authors the benefit of the
doubt and try to understand what they are saying? The problem seems
to be that some atheists have never read a serious book written for
adults and they don't know what to do when they run into one.
There are two ways to
interpret this pair of proverbs. One approach starts with the
recognition that proverbs only express the general rule briefly and
are not meant to comprehensively cover a subject under all
circumstances. According to that understanding, there are times when
it is appropriate to answer a fool and other times when it isn't.
The second way of understanding these two proverbs relies on the
second part of each verse. Don't reply to a fool in the same foolish
manner that he uses, but do answer him or he will go away thinking
that he is correct and proceed to spread his foolishness elsewhere.
J.
Matthew 5:48 says, “Be perfect as your heavenly Father is perfect.”
But in Luke 18:19, Jesus bawls out a man who called him “good
teacher” by replying that no one is good but God alone.
The
first thing to do is check some word definitions:
Perfect
(teleioi)
= to bring to an end by completing or perfecting, mature, full-grown.
You could say that it means reaching your individual goal or
potential.
Good
(agathon)
= beneficial in its effect, morally honorable.
“The
natural man is irretrievably in bondage to the powers of sin and
death and has no right to claim the attribute 'good' for
himself...But through the redemption which has taken place in Christ,
goodness overflows the believer.” (DNNT, 2,
101)
But why did Jesus deny
being good? Keep in mind that the questioner in Luke didn't recognize
Jesus as divine but merely as a good teacher. Jesus replied to those
presumptions by saying that if that's all he is, he shouldn't be
called good at all.
Another wrinkle to
this question appears if you consider the parallel passage in Matthew
19:17:
“Why
do you ask me concerning that
which is good?
There is One who is good.”
“If
Jesus is simply Teacher, then he is calculated to know no more and no
less than any other teacher as to what actions are deemed “good
for” entrance into the life of the age-to-come. If he is Good
Teacher (as in Mark and Luke), then Jesus will not allow the
questioner to use [the] word or ascription lightly.” (W.
F. Albright and C. S. Mann, Matthew)
As usual, C. S. Lewis has
expressed it the best: “You must make your choice. Either this man
was, and is, the Son of God, or else a madman or something worse. You
can shut Him up for a fool; you can spit at Him and kill him as a
demon; or you can fall at His feet and call Him Lord and God. But
let us not come with any patronizing nonsense about His being a great
human teacher. He has not left that open to us. He did not intend
to.”
K. The next
objection concerns the number of disciples the resurrected Jesus
appeared to. Was it 10, 11 or 12?
First of all, the
author of this gem is obviously using the general word “disciple”
only in the particular sense of the original apostles since the I
Corinthian passage states that Jesus also appeared to more than 500
believers (disciples) at one time.
John
and Paul use “the Twelve” as the collective designation for the
original apostles while Matthew uses the actual numerical count of
11. Just look at John 20:24 where Thomas is called one of the twelve
even though Judas was dead at that time and his replacement hadn't
yet been chosen; it does not imply that all twelve were on hand...”
And then two verses later, Thomas joins them so that all three
numbers 10, 11 and 12 are correct. So
basically, there is absolutely no contradiction here unless you
insist on pedantic, meticulous, mathematical precision instead of
trying to discover the original intent. Again, the similarity in
approach to the Bible by atheists and fundamentalists is striking.
L. If Jesus told the
thief on the cross that he would be with Jesus in paradise that day,
why did he tell Mary that He hadn't yet ascended to the Father?
The
word “Paradise” only appears these few times in the New
Testament: “In Luke 23:43, it is no doubt dependent on contemporary
Jewish conceptions, and refers to the at present hidden and
intermediate abode of the righteous.” ( DNNT)
In
II Corinthians 12:2-4, it is equivalent to “the third heaven,”
where Adam, for example, was left until the day of judgment.
(Apocalypse of Moses 37:5)
In
Revelation 2:7, it is one of the blessings promised to believers
beginning in this life and continuing after death. ( DNNT,
Vol. 2, pp. 760-764)
Details regarding our
immediate fate once we die are not spelled out in detail in the
Bible, but it appears that Paradise is some sort of waiting place for
believers until the Final Judgment happens. Therefore we can't at all
state that paradise is the same as God's heavenly throne room, to
which Jesus hadn't yet ascended.
M.
Is
God the only one who is God holy?
Revelation
15:4 says yes while Revelation 22:11 says no.
The
word in Revelation 15:4 is hosios,
a rare NT word that usually only appears when quoting from the OT.
The word means “utterly without sin and utterly pure.” The word
in Revelation 22:11 is hagios,
which is seldom used to describe God. It “implies a relationship
with God which is expressed...through the fact that believers are led
by the Holy Spirit.” In Paul's writings hoi
hagioi
are the saints, those sanctified.
(New
International Dictionary of NT Theology,
Vol. 2, pp. 228-238.)
By the way, we will see
in other posts that this is a common ploy also used by some
Christians who twist Scriptures when they rely solely on an English
translation, especially KJV, without regard to the original Hebrew or
Greek word being translated. The two concepts come together in this
passage, “Be ye holy as I am holy.” ( Lev. 11:44; I Peter 1:16)
Our holiness (sanctification) is derived from God's unique holiness
(otherness).
N.
Why are unclean creatures still mentioned in Revelation 18:2 when all
animals had been declared clean?
1.
Akathartos
refers “to the whole realm of uncleanness, ranging from
menstruation to moral pollution through wrongdoing.” (DNNT,
vol. 3, pp. 102-108)
2.
Jesus declared all foods
clean (not all animals). (Mark 7:19; I Corinthians 10)
3.
Peter received the same message through a vision. (Acts 10-11)
4.
But the real message of the vision was symbolic as most other visions
and had to do with the relationship of Jews with Gentiles. “God
has shown me that I should not call anyone
profane or unclean.” (Acts 10:28)
5.
The imagery is mainly taken from Isaiah 13:21-22 referring to
scavengers such as vultures, jackals and hyenas, which were not only
ritually unclean to eat but also considered as rather disgusting
creatures.
So even if one could eat them, they were still rather foul animals,
or foul fowls in the case of vultures.