I CORINTHIANS 16:22

Q: My Bible has the word “maranatha” in this verse. What does it mean and why wasn't it translated into English?

It isn't translated in some English versions but is in others. The word is unusual in that it is an Aramaic word, not a Greek one. That fact probably means that it it appeared very early in church usage since that was the generally spoken language of Jesus' time. Another reason for not translating it is that there is some uncertainty as to exactly what it means, depending on whether the original was “marana tha” or “maran atha.” Possible meanings include: our Lord is a sign, thou art Lord, our Lord has come, at the coming of the Lord, or our Lord is coming (which may have been the original of Philippians 4:4).

But it is most usually understood as a prayer “Our Lord, come!” As such, many scholars feel it was the earliest recorded Christian prayer, originating in the Jerusalem Church. And however it is translated, the fact that it was preserved in Aramaic disproves Rudolph Bultmann's contention that Jesus was first called Lord in Greek-speaking churches (Ladd, The Presence of the Future). "Maranatha" also appears prominently in Revelation 22:20 to close the whole Bible. Notice that in both the I Corinthians and Revelation passage, this word is coupled with another untranslated word, Amen.