Q: This passage states after the flood God gave man everything for food. Was man
originally vegetarian prior to this? If God gave them everything to eat after the flood, why did the
Israelites observe some animals as being “unclean” and not permitted to eat?
Concerning the first question, most commentators feel that mankind was vegetarian before the flood,
as referenced in Genesis 1:29. The only problem that some people see with this interpretation is that
the same language (having green plants for food) is applied to all animals in 1:30, even those that
are strictly carnivores today. Thus, others explain the Genesis 1 references as just meaning that all
animals, even carnivores, ultimately depend on plants for food since that is the food utilized by the
animals they in turn eat.
As far as the second question goes, remember that this was a covenant given to all mankind—the
so-called Noachian Covenant. At this point in history, there was no such thing as an Israelite
people at all. Later, when God chose one particular family to be the basis of the Jewish race, a holy
nation separated unto himself, further restrictions on which animals were clean to eat were
imposed on them to help emphasize their distinction from the rest of humanity. (The earlier
mention of clean and unclean animals in Genesis 7 probably refers only to which animals were
acceptable for sacrificing to God.)
This is the background for the decision of Jerusalem Conference described in Acts 15:19-22
whereby the Christian Gentiles were freed from the Jewish dietary laws but told to still keep the
command given to Noah to refrain from eating animals from which the blood had not been first
drained.
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